Practice Test Geeks(ECFMG) Educational Commission for Foreign Medical Graduates Practice Test
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Medical Knowledge & Clinical Science Flashcards

7 cards from real ECFMG practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Medical Knowledge & Clinical Science flashcards as text

  1. A 35-year-old woman presents with ascending weakness starting in her legs 2 weeks after a GI illness. CSF shows elevated protein with normal cell count. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

    Guillain-Barré syndrome presents with ascending paralysis post-infection and the classic CSF finding of albuminocytologic dissociation (high protein, normal cells).

  2. A 50-year-old alcoholic man presents with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. What is the immediate treatment?

    Answer: Thiamine IV then glucose

    Wernicke's encephalopathy requires immediate IV thiamine before glucose to prevent precipitation or worsening of the thiamine-deficient state.

  3. A 40-year-old woman has a butterfly rash, arthralgia, and a positive ANA. Her anti-dsDNA is elevated and complement levels are low. Which organ complication carries the worst prognosis in her condition?

    Answer: Lupus nephritis

    Lupus nephritis is the most serious organ complication of SLE and is a major cause of morbidity and mortality if untreated.

  4. A neonate develops projectile vomiting at 3 weeks of age. The vomit is nonbilious and the infant is hungry after vomiting. Ultrasound shows pyloric wall thickness of 5 mm. What is the definitive treatment?

    Answer: Pyloromyotomy

    Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is definitively treated with Ramstedt pyloromyotomy after correcting electrolyte abnormalities.

  5. A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes has a creatinine of 2.1 mg/dL and eGFR of 38 mL/min. Which antidiabetic agent requires dose adjustment or avoidance?

    Answer: Metformin

    Metformin is contraindicated when eGFR falls below 30 and should be used cautiously below 45 due to risk of lactic acidosis in renal impairment.

  6. A patient with HIV has a CD4 count of 80 cells/μL and presents with headache, fever, and a positive India ink preparation of CSF. What is the treatment of choice?

    Answer: Amphotericin B plus flucytosine

    Cryptococcal meningitis induction therapy in HIV uses amphotericin B deoxycholate plus flucytosine for the first 2 weeks.

  7. A 22-year-old man has painless testicular swelling. Ultrasound shows a solid intratesticular mass. Which tumor marker is MOST specific for seminoma?

    Answer: Placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP)

    PLAP is most specific for seminoma; AFP elevation indicates non-seminomatous elements and rules out pure seminoma.