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Prometric Flashcards

6 cards from real DHA practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 6 Prometric flashcards as text

  1. A 28-year-old woman presents with a 2-year history of amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and visual field defects (bitemporal hemianopia). MRI shows a sellar mass. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Pituitary prolactinoma (macroadenoma)

    The combination of amenorrhea, galactorrhea, elevated prolactin, and bitemporal hemianopia (from optic chiasm compression) is classic for a pituitary prolactinoma (macroadenoma >1cm). Prolactinomas are the most common secretory pituitary adenomas. Treatment: dopamine agonists (cabergoline/bromocriptine) as first-line.

  2. A 50-year-old male construction worker (UAE expatriate) presents with progressive dyspnea and a CXR showing upper lobe fibrosis with eggshell calcification of hilar lymph nodes. What occupational disease does this suggest?

    Answer: Silicosis

    Upper lobe fibrosis with eggshell calcification of hilar lymph nodes is the classic radiological pattern of silicosis. Construction and mining workers in the UAE are exposed to silica dust from sandblasting, drilling, and concrete work. Eggshell calcification of lymph nodes is pathognomonic for silicosis.

  3. On DHA Prometric examinations, which of the following best describes the 'best answer' question format?

    Answer: All answers are medically correct but one option is the MOST appropriate, evidence-based, or efficient choice in the given clinical context

    DHA Prometric uses 'best answer' (Type A) single best answer MCQs. In clinical scenarios, all options may have some merit, but one is the most appropriate based on evidence-based guidelines, clinical context, patient safety priorities, or UAE/DHA-specific regulations. Test-takers must select the single best answer.

  4. A 3-year-old child presents with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and mild respiratory distress worsening at night. The child is afebrile and well-hydrated. What is the most likely diagnosis and first-line treatment?

    Answer: Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis) — treat with a single dose of oral/IM dexamethasone

    The classic croup presentation: barking (seal-like) cough, inspiratory stridor, worse at night, in children 6 months to 3 years, usually parainfluenza virus. Mild croup is treated with a single dose of dexamethasone (0.6mg/kg oral/IM) which reduces croup symptoms and return ED visits. Nebulized adrenaline for moderate/severe cases.

  5. A 65-year-old patient undergoes right total knee replacement. On day 3 post-op, they develop right calf pain, swelling, and a positive Homan's sign. Duplex ultrasound confirms DVT. What is the recommended treatment?

    Answer: Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) or direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs such as rivaroxaban/apixaban) for at least 3 months

    Post-surgical DVT requires therapeutic anticoagulation. DOACs (rivaroxaban, apixaban) or LMWH are preferred over warfarin (no bridging needed, predictable dosing). Duration for provoked DVT (post-surgical): minimum 3 months. VTE prophylaxis after orthopedic surgery is critical — all joint replacement patients receive prophylaxis.

  6. In the UAE, which body is responsible for the national unified medical record system connecting healthcare data across providers?

    Answer: Malaffi (Abu Dhabi) and Nabidh (Dubai) — emirates-level HIE platforms

    The UAE uses emirate-level Health Information Exchange platforms: Malaffi in Abu Dhabi and Nabidh in Dubai. These platforms connect public and private healthcare providers, enabling secure sharing of patient health records. DHA mandates all licensed Dubai healthcare facilities to connect to Nabidh for data sharing and care coordination.