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Emergency Medical Services Flashcards

6 cards from real DHA practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 6 Emergency Medical Services flashcards as text

  1. A 3-year-old child presents with drooling, stridor, high fever, and sitting in the 'tripod position.' The child appears toxic. What is the priority action?

    Answer: Secure airway in OR with ENT/anesthesia present, minimize agitation

    This presentation is classic for acute epiglottitis. The priority is securing the airway in a controlled environment (OR) with ENT and anesthesia present. Avoid agitating the child, examining the throat directly, or performing procedures that could precipitate complete airway obstruction.

  2. An adult patient is in pulseless electrical activity (PEA). After initiating CPR, which reversible causes should be systematically addressed (5Hs and 5Ts)?

    Answer: Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, Hydrogen ion (acidosis), Hypo/Hyperkalemia, Hypothermia; Tension pneumothorax, Tamponade, Toxins, Thrombosis (PE/MI), Trauma

    The 5Hs and 5Ts are the reversible causes of PEA/asystole: Hypovolemia, Hypoxia, Hydrogen ion (acidosis), Hypo/Hyperkalemia, Hypothermia; Tension pneumothorax, Tamponade, Toxins, Thrombosis (PE or MI), Trauma.

  3. A patient presents with suspected organophosphate poisoning after agricultural exposure in the UAE. Symptoms include excessive secretions, miosis, bradycardia, and bronchospasm. What is the antidote?

    Answer: Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM)

    Organophosphate poisoning causes cholinergic toxidrome (SLUDGE: Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Defecation, GI distress, Emesis) by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. Atropine blocks muscarinic effects; pralidoxime reactivates acetylcholinesterase if given early.

  4. In the management of out-of-hospital cardiac arrest, what intervention has shown the strongest evidence for improving neurologically intact survival?

    Answer: High-quality CPR with minimal interruptions

    High-quality CPR (rate 100–120/min, depth 5–6cm, full recoil, minimizing interruptions) is the single most important intervention in cardiac arrest. Pre-hospital CPR quality directly determines ROSC rates and neurological outcomes.

  5. A 55-year-old man presents with acute onset confusion, dysarthria, right-sided facial droop, and right arm weakness that started 1 hour ago. CT head is negative for hemorrhage. What is the appropriate treatment window and intervention?

    Answer: IV tPA within 4.5 hours of symptom onset

    Ischemic stroke with no hemorrhage on CT and presenting within 4.5 hours is eligible for IV thrombolysis with tPA (alteplase). The time window is 0–4.5 hours from symptom onset (3 hours in some patient subgroups). Mechanical thrombectomy may be added for large vessel occlusion up to 24 hours.

  6. A patient with known epilepsy presents in status epilepticus. Initial IV lorazepam was given but seizures continue after 5 minutes. What is the next step?

    Answer: IV levetiracetam, valproate, or fosphenytoin (second-line AED)

    After benzodiazepine failure in status epilepticus, second-line treatment includes IV levetiracetam, valproate, or fosphenytoin. These are preferred over phenobarbital due to better side effect profiles. If seizures continue after second-line agents, refractory status epilepticus requires anesthesia/intubation.