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Clinical Practice & Guidelines Flashcards

6 cards from real DHA practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 6 Clinical Practice & Guidelines flashcards as text

  1. A 58-year-old male presents with crushing chest pain radiating to the left arm for 30 minutes. ECG shows ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?

    Answer: Right coronary artery

    ST elevation in leads II, III, and aVF indicates an inferior myocardial infarction, which is most commonly caused by occlusion of the right coronary artery (RCA), which supplies the inferior wall of the left ventricle in most patients.

  2. According to DHA clinical guidelines, what is the recommended first-line treatment for newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes mellitus in an otherwise healthy adult?

    Answer: Metformin

    Metformin remains the first-line pharmacological treatment for type 2 diabetes mellitus per international guidelines endorsed by DHA. It is cost-effective, weight-neutral, and has a proven cardiovascular safety profile.

  3. A patient is prescribed warfarin for atrial fibrillation. The therapeutic INR range for this indication is:

    Answer: 2.0–3.0

    The therapeutic INR range for atrial fibrillation anticoagulation with warfarin is 2.0–3.0. This range balances stroke prevention with acceptable bleeding risk.

  4. Which of the following is the most sensitive early indicator of acute kidney injury (AKI)?

    Answer: Urine output less than 0.5 mL/kg/hr for 6 hours

    Urine output decrease (<0.5 mL/kg/hr for ≥6 hours) is an early sensitive indicator of AKI per KDIGO criteria. Serum creatinine rises later as it only increases when GFR falls by approximately 50%.

  5. A 35-year-old pregnant woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with blood pressure 160/110 mmHg, proteinuria 3+, and headache. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

    Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulfate and antihypertensive therapy

    This presentation is consistent with severe preeclampsia. IV magnesium sulfate is given for seizure prophylaxis (eclampsia prevention) and IV antihypertensives (labetalol or hydralazine) are used for BP control. Delivery is planned but not always immediate.

  6. In the management of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in a previously healthy adult not requiring ICU admission, which antibiotic regimen is most appropriate per current guidelines?

    Answer: Oral amoxicillin or macrolide monotherapy

    For outpatient CAP in a healthy adult with no comorbidities and no recent antibiotic use, monotherapy with amoxicillin or a macrolide (azithromycin) is recommended. Combination therapy or broad-spectrum agents are not needed for low-risk patients.