Mixed Deck — All CVT Topics Flashcards

Which hemodynamic profile is consistent with hypovolemic shock?

Answer: Low CVP, low PCWP, low CO, high SVR

Hypovolemic shock produces low filling pressures (CVP, PCWP), reduced cardiac output, and compensatory vasoconstriction (high SVR).

Which vein is commonly assessed for deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Answer: Femoral vein

The femoral vein is one of the most commonly evaluated veins in DVT assessments.

Which portion of the aorta gives rise to the right and left coronary arteries?

Answer: Aortic sinuses of Valsalva

The coronary arteries originate from the left and right aortic sinuses (sinuses of Valsalva) just above the aortic valve cusps.

How does risk management apply to daily practice in Cardiac Catheterization Procedures for Cardiovascular Technologist professionals?

Answer: Through proactive identification of potential hazards and implementation of preventive measures

Effective risk management in Cardiac Catheterization Procedures requires proactive hazard identification and preventive measures, not just reactive responses. This approach reduces incidents, improves outcomes, and protects both professionals and clients.

ST elevation in leads V1–V4 with reciprocal depression in inferior leads most likely represents:

Answer: Anterior STEMI

The anterior precordial leads V1–V4 overlie the anterior left ventricular wall, and ST elevation in these leads indicates an anterior STEMI, typically from LAD occlusion.

What does a high-resistance waveform typically indicate?

Answer: Supply to muscular arteries

High-resistance waveforms are characteristic of arteries supplying muscles or organs with intermittent demand.

Which echocardiographic criterion is used to define severe tricuspid regurgitation by jet area on color Doppler?

Answer: Regurgitant jet area > 10 cm² or jet reaching the posterior right atrial wall

Severe TR by color Doppler is characterized by a large jet area > 10 cm² or a jet that reaches the posterior right atrial wall, indicating significant regurgitant volume.

Beta-blockers are contraindicated in patients with which of the following conditions?

Answer: Decompensated heart failure

Beta-blockers are contraindicated in acute decompensated heart failure because negative inotropy can worsen cardiac output and precipitate cardiogenic shock.

Which duplex velocity criterion is used to diagnose significant (≥60%) renal artery stenosis?

Answer: RAR > 3.5 and PSV > 180–200 cm/s

The widely accepted criterion for ≥60% renal artery stenosis is PSV >180–200 cm/s combined with a renal-to-aortic ratio (RAR) >3.5.

During ventricular tachycardia (VT) ablation, what does entrainment mapping help the electrophysiologist determine?

Answer: Whether the pacing site is within or adjacent to the VT reentry circuit

Entrainment mapping compares the post-pacing interval (PPI) to the VT cycle length; a PPI equal to the cycle length indicates the pacing site is within the circuit.

Which ion is primarily responsible for the plateau phase (phase 2) of the cardiac action potential?

Answer: Calcium (Ca²⁺) influx via L-type channels

The plateau phase of the ventricular action potential is maintained by slow L-type calcium channel influx balanced against potassium efflux.

On a 3D electroanatomical bipolar voltage map, purple/blue color typically represents:

Answer: Scar tissue with low bipolar voltage (<0.5 mV)

Purple/blue on bipolar voltage maps indicates dense scar (<0.5 mV), which commonly serves as the substrate for reentrant ventricular tachycardia.

A patient's ICD interrogation shows 'T-wave oversensing.' What is the most likely consequence?

Answer: Inappropriate shock delivery

T-wave oversensing causes the device to double-count cardiac events, potentially satisfying tachycardia detection criteria and delivering inappropriate therapy.

A patient on a beta-blocker achieves only 75% of MPHR but develops 2 mm horizontal ST depression with typical angina. The stress test result should be interpreted as:

Answer: Positive for ischemia despite submaximal effort

Significant ST depression (≥1 mm) with typical anginal symptoms constitutes a positive test even if the 85% MPHR target was not achieved.

What is the significance of a 'late potential' detected on a signal-averaged ECG (SAECG) in a post-MI patient?

Answer: It indicates areas of slow conduction in infarcted tissue that serve as a substrate for re-entrant ventricular tachycardia

Late potentials on SAECG reflect delayed, fragmented activation through peri-infarct scar tissue, creating a substrate for re-entrant VT circuits.

Normal right ventricular systolic pressure is approximately:

Answer: 20–30 mmHg

Normal RV systolic pressure is 20–30 mmHg, equal to pulmonary artery systolic pressure in the absence of pulmonic valve stenosis.

Wenckebach upper rate behavior in a DDD pacemaker occurs when:

Answer: The intrinsic atrial rate exceeds the programmed upper rate limit

When the intrinsic atrial rate exceeds the upper tracking rate, the pacemaker progressively lengthens the AV interval until a P-wave falls in the PVARP and is not tracked, creating a Wenckebach pattern.

Which Holter lead configuration is considered most useful for detecting ST-segment changes associated with ischemia?

Answer: CM5 and CC5

CM5 monitors the lateral wall and CC5 monitors the inferior-lateral wall, providing the best sensitivity for ischemic ST changes in ambulatory monitoring.

ST depression that is horizontal or downsloping in leads V4-V6 during an exercise stress test is most suggestive of:

Answer: Myocardial ischemia

Horizontal or downsloping ST depression ≥1 mm at 80 ms after the J point during stress testing is the standard criterion for inducible ischemia.

During venous duplex imaging of the lower extremity, which maneuver is used to assess valve competence?

Answer: Valsalva maneuver

The Valsalva maneuver increases intra-abdominal pressure, temporarily halting venous flow, and upon release reveals reflux in incompetent valves.