NBSTSA Certified Surgical Technologist (CST) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: When implementing professional ethics & legal compliance practices, what should a CST professional prioritize first?

Cost reduction at all levels
Personal convenience and efficiency
Speed of completion over thoroughness
Compliance with established standards and protocols (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Compliance with established standards and protocols

Compliance with established standards and protocols must be the first priority, as it ensures safety, quality, and legal adherence in professional practice.

Question 2: Epinephrine is often added to local anesthetics for which primary purpose?

To reduce systemic toxicity by causing vasoconstriction (Correct answer)
To alkalinize the solution for better diffusion
To increase the speed of onset
To extend the duration by increasing blood flow

Correct answer: To reduce systemic toxicity by causing vasoconstriction

Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction at the injection site, slowing absorption and reducing systemic toxicity while prolonging the block.

Question 3: Which quality improvement method is most applicable to evidence-based practice & research methods in Certified Surgical Technician?

Making changes only when mandated by regulators
Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) continuous improvement cycle (Correct answer)
Ignoring feedback and maintaining status quo
Implementing changes without measuring outcomes

Correct answer: Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) continuous improvement cycle

The PDCA cycle is widely recognized as the most effective quality improvement method, allowing CST professionals to systematically improve evidence-based practice & research methods practices.

Question 4: In Anatomy & Physiology for Surgery, what is the FIRST step a CST professional should take when encountering a new case or situation?

Implement an immediate solution based on past experience
Document the situation and wait for further instructions
Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information (Correct answer)
Consult with a supervisor before taking any action

Correct answer: Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information

In Anatomy & Physiology for Surgery, a thorough initial assessment ensures all relevant factors are identified before deciding on an appropriate course of action. This systematic approach is fundamental to Certified Surgical Technician practice.

Question 5: The surgeon requests an additional lap sponge during closure after the sponge count has been completed. The scrub ST should:

Add the sponge to the count with the circulator before passing it to the surgeon (Correct answer)
Pass the sponge immediately without adjusting the count to avoid delaying closure
Refuse to pass additional sponges after the closing count is complete
Ask the surgeon to document the addition in the operative note instead

Correct answer: Add the sponge to the count with the circulator before passing it to the surgeon

Any item added to the sterile field after a count must be counted in with the circulator before use to maintain count accuracy.

Question 6: The circulating nurse reports that the sterilization log shows a flash (immediate-use steam sterilization) cycle was used for an implant due to a dropped instrument. What is the CORRECT response?

Proceed normally; flash sterilization is equivalent to terminal sterilization for implants
Document the event and inform the surgeon; flash sterilization of implants requires special documentation and justification (Correct answer)
Use the implant only if the surgeon agrees verbally
Discard the implant without documentation

Correct answer: Document the event and inform the surgeon; flash sterilization of implants requires special documentation and justification

AORN guidelines state that flash sterilization of implants should be avoided except in urgent situations and must be fully documented with justification and biological indicator results.

Question 7: How does risk management apply to daily practice in Surgical Pharmacology for Certified Surgical Technician professionals?

By avoiding high-risk situations entirely
Through proactive identification of potential hazards and implementation of preventive measures (Correct answer)
Through annual safety audits exclusively
Only through responding to incidents after they occur

Correct answer: Through proactive identification of potential hazards and implementation of preventive measures

Effective risk management in Surgical Pharmacology requires proactive hazard identification and preventive measures, not just reactive responses. This approach reduces incidents, improves outcomes, and protects both professionals and clients.

Question 8: When should suction be prepared?

When the surgeon asks
After surgery
Before the incision is made (Correct answer)
During closing

Correct answer: Before the incision is made

Suction equipment must be prepared and functional before the surgical incision is made to ensure immediate availability for fluid and blood removal. This readiness is essential for maintaining a clear surgical field, allowing the surgeon to visualize anatomy, and responding quickly to any unexpected bleeding.

Question 9: Which intraoperative complication is characterized by a sudden rise in end-tidal CO2, hyperthermia, and muscle rigidity?

Anaphylaxis
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
Pulmonary embolism
Malignant hyperthermia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Malignant hyperthermia

Malignant hyperthermia is a hypermetabolic crisis triggered by certain anesthetic agents, presenting with rising CO2, hyperthermia, and rigidity.

Question 10: The Trendelenburg position is defined as the patient positioned:

Lateral with the operative side facing up
Supine with the feet lower than the head
Prone with the head higher than the feet
Supine with the head tilted lower than the feet (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Supine with the head tilted lower than the feet

In Trendelenburg, the patient lies supine on a table tilted so the head is lower than the feet, improving venous return and used for pelvic or lower abdominal surgery.

Question 11: Which postoperative action helps prevent surgical site infections (SSI) related to the scrub ST's role?

Removing gloves before passing the final dressing materials
Administering prophylactic antibiotics to the patient before leaving the OR
Maintaining sterile technique throughout closure and applying a sterile dressing (Correct answer)
Adjusting OR temperature to below 65°F during the postoperative phase

Correct answer: Maintaining sterile technique throughout closure and applying a sterile dressing

Maintaining strict sterile technique through wound closure and sterile dressing application is the scrub ST's primary contribution to SSI prevention.

Question 12: During a laparoscopic procedure, the sterile technologist's hands and arms should be kept:

Below the level of the OR table
At waist level or higher within the sterile zone (Correct answer)
Wherever is most comfortable during long procedures
At shoulder level to maintain visibility

Correct answer: At waist level or higher within the sterile zone

Hands and arms must remain at or above waist level within the sterile zone because areas below waist level are considered unsterile.

Question 13: Which of the following is the primary purpose of applying a tourniquet during extremity surgery?

Prevent venous thromboembolism
Provide a bloodless operative field (Correct answer)
Stabilize the limb on the OR table
Reduce the risk of nerve injury

Correct answer: Provide a bloodless operative field

A tourniquet inflated proximal to the surgical site occludes arterial and venous blood flow, creating a bloodless field that improves visibility.

Question 14: The scrub technologist should prepare suture for the surgeon by:

Opening all suture packages at the start of the case regardless of need
Organizing suture by type and size according to the surgeon's preference card (Correct answer)
Cutting all sutures to equal 6-inch lengths before the procedure
Soaking all sutures in saline to improve tensile strength

Correct answer: Organizing suture by type and size according to the surgeon's preference card

The scrub technologist organizes sutures according to the surgeon's preference card to ensure the correct materials are available in the proper order.

Question 15: What is the significance of peer review in communication & interprofessional collaboration for CST professionals?

It promotes accountability, knowledge sharing, and quality improvement (Correct answer)
It replaces the need for self-assessment
It is only relevant for newly certified professionals
It is primarily used for disciplinary purposes

Correct answer: It promotes accountability, knowledge sharing, and quality improvement

Peer review promotes accountability, knowledge sharing, and quality improvement by allowing CST professionals to benefit from collective expertise and identify areas for growth.

Question 16: Which inhalation agent is known to sensitize the myocardium to catecholamine-induced arrhythmias?

Sevoflurane
Isoflurane
Halothane (Correct answer)
Desflurane

Correct answer: Halothane

Halothane sensitizes the myocardium to epinephrine, making arrhythmias more likely when catecholamines are used.

Question 17: Which of the following is the MOST important reason to perform a pre-incision Time Out?

To verify the OR suite is at the correct temperature
To confirm correct patient, site, side, procedure, and position before incision (Correct answer)
To allow the anesthesia provider to check vital signs
To ensure instrument counts are complete

Correct answer: To confirm correct patient, site, side, procedure, and position before incision

The Time Out (per Joint Commission Universal Protocol) pauses all activity to verify the five rights: patient, procedure, site, side, and position.

Question 18: The scrub technologist's primary role during patient positioning is to:

Assess pressure points and neurovascular status postoperatively
Operate positioning devices and direct team members
Document all positional aids used in the intraoperative record
Maintain sterility of the surgical field while assisting positioning as needed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintain sterility of the surgical field while assisting positioning as needed

The scrub technologist must remain focused on maintaining sterile field integrity while supporting team positioning efforts without contaminating sterile items.

Question 19: During a Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy), which structure is anastomosed to the jejunum to restore biliary drainage?

Cystic duct
Hepatic artery
Gallbladder fundus
Common bile duct (choledochojejunostomy) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Common bile duct (choledochojejunostomy)

A choledochojejunostomy reconnects the common bile duct to a loop of jejunum to restore bile flow after removal of the head of the pancreas.

Question 20: After a case involving an infectious patient under contact precautions, the scrub ST should:

Use standard processing for all instruments and discard only the gown
Follow the facility's enhanced PPE removal protocol and decontaminate all reusable items per infection control policy (Correct answer)
Alert pathology but otherwise proceed with routine postoperative cleanup
Delay instrument processing until infectious disease clears the room

Correct answer: Follow the facility's enhanced PPE removal protocol and decontaminate all reusable items per infection control policy

Enhanced PPE doffing and infection-control-compliant instrument processing are required for cases involving contact precaution patients to prevent cross-contamination.

Question 21: Which drug is used intraoperatively to reduce secretions and prevent bradycardia during general anesthesia?

Metoprolol
Atropine sulfate applied topically
Glycopyrrolate (Correct answer)
Neostigmine

Correct answer: Glycopyrrolate

Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic agent that reduces oral and airway secretions and helps prevent vagally mediated bradycardia.

Question 22: Which graft material is most commonly used for an abdominal aortic aneurysm open repair?

Bovine pericardium
PTFE patch only
Woven Dacron (polyester) prosthesis (Correct answer)
Autologous saphenous vein

Correct answer: Woven Dacron (polyester) prosthesis

Woven Dacron (polyester) tube or bifurcated grafts are the standard prosthetic conduit for open AAA repair due to durability and handling characteristics.

Question 23: Which anatomical space is entered during a lumbar laminectomy?

Subarachnoid space
Subdural space
Ventricular space
Epidural space (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Epidural space

Lumbar laminectomy removes the lamina to access the epidural space and decompress the spinal cord or nerve roots.

Question 24: When positioning a patient in the prone position, padding should be placed primarily under which structures?

Shoulders, elbows, and ankles
Chest/thorax, hips/iliac crests, and knees (Correct answer)
Occiput, sacrum, and heels
Forehead, thighs, and calves

Correct answer: Chest/thorax, hips/iliac crests, and knees

Prone positioning requires padding under the chest and iliac crests to protect the thorax and allow diaphragm excursion, and under the knees to prevent hyperextension.

Question 25: What is the role of the surgical technologist during the time-out?

To actively participate and confirm patient identity, site, and procedure (Correct answer)
To document the time-out in the medical record
To verify anesthesia readiness only
To prepare the next instrument set while the surgeon leads the time-out

Correct answer: To actively participate and confirm patient identity, site, and procedure

All OR team members, including the surgical technologist, must actively participate in the time-out and verbally confirm the required safety information.

Question 26: During a procedure, a Mayo stand is moved away from the sterile field and positioned over the patient's legs. The items on the Mayo stand are:

Sterile as long as the items were not dropped
Contaminated because the stand moved below waist level briefly
Unsterile because the stand is now over an unsterile patient area
Still sterile because the stand was not touched by anyone (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Still sterile because the stand was not touched by anyone

The Mayo stand remains sterile as long as its contents were not contaminated during the move and it stays within the sterile zone at table level.

Question 27: Which hair removal method is preferred to minimize surgical site infection (SSI) risk?

Clipping hair immediately before the procedure (Correct answer)
Razor shave the night before surgery
Razor shave immediately before incision
Depilatory cream applied 48 hours prior

Correct answer: Clipping hair immediately before the procedure

Clipping (not shaving) immediately before the procedure is preferred because it causes fewer microabrasions that could harbor bacteria.

Question 28: How should a CST professional handle a situation where professional ethics & legal compliance protocols conflict with practical constraints?

Make a unilateral decision without consultation
Avoid addressing the conflict entirely
Document the conflict and seek guidance from appropriate authorities (Correct answer)
Always ignore the protocols in favor of practicality

Correct answer: Document the conflict and seek guidance from appropriate authorities

When protocols conflict with practical constraints, the professional approach is to document the conflict and seek guidance, ensuring transparency and compliance while working toward a resolution.

Question 29: The sterile field should be established how far in advance of the scheduled procedure start time?

As far in advance as needed for efficiency
At least 2 hours before to allow for airing out
No more than 30 minutes before the procedure (Correct answer)
Exactly 1 hour before incision time

Correct answer: No more than 30 minutes before the procedure

AORN recommends the sterile field be set up as close to the time of use as possible, with no more than 30 minutes considered acceptable by many facilities.

Question 30: Which segment of the nephron is primarily responsible for concentrating urine by reabsorbing water without solutes?

Collecting duct (Correct answer)
Loop of Henle ascending limb
Proximal convoluted tubule
Glomerulus

Correct answer: Collecting duct

The collecting duct reabsorbs water in response to ADH (antidiuretic hormone), concentrating the final urine.

Question 31: What is the primary purpose of a towel clamp (Backhaus clamp) in the sterile field?

Securing sterile drapes to the patient (Correct answer)
Grasping tissue specimens
Clamping blood vessels
Holding retractors in place

Correct answer: Securing sterile drapes to the patient

Backhaus (towel) clamps have sharp, penetrating tips used to secure sterile drapes to the patient and to each other during draping.

Question 32: Which topical hemostatic agent is derived from oxidized regenerated cellulose and works by providing a physical matrix for clot formation?

Thrombin
Surgicel (Correct answer)
Bone wax
Gelfoam

Correct answer: Surgicel

Surgicel (oxidized regenerated cellulose) is an absorbable hemostatic fabric that provides a physical scaffold for platelet aggregation and clot formation.

Question 33: A self-retaining retractor such as the Balfour is used primarily for exposure of which surgical area?

Thoracic cavity
Spinal column
Cranial vault
Abdominal cavity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Abdominal cavity

The Balfour retractor is a large, self-retaining abdominal retractor with a central blade and two lateral blades used for open abdominal procedures.

Question 34: Which OR lighting system provides the most shadow-free illumination of the operative field?

Multi-source LED overhead surgical lights (Correct answer)
Single overhead halogen spotlight
Reflected ambient room lighting
Fiberoptic headlamp only

Correct answer: Multi-source LED overhead surgical lights

Multi-source LED surgical lights illuminate from multiple angles simultaneously, eliminating shadows and providing consistent, color-accurate lighting of the operative field.

Question 35: During a craniotomy, which powered instrument is used to cut through the skull?

Stryker cast saw
Craniotome (pneumatic or electric) (Correct answer)
Oscillating saw
Gigli saw

Correct answer: Craniotome (pneumatic or electric)

A craniotome (also called a perforator/drill with a craniotome attachment) is used to make burr holes and cut the bone flap during a craniotomy.

Question 36: What is the recommended minimum air exchange rate per hour in a standard operating room?

15 exchanges per hour
20 exchanges per hour (Correct answer)
10 exchanges per hour
25 exchanges per hour

Correct answer: 20 exchanges per hour

AORN guidelines recommend a minimum of 20 air exchanges per hour in the OR to minimize airborne contamination.

Question 37: Which opioid is commonly delivered via epidural infusion for postoperative pain management and has high lipid solubility?

Hydromorphone
Fentanyl (Correct answer)
Morphine
Codeine

Correct answer: Fentanyl

Fentanyl's high lipid solubility allows rapid onset and segmental analgesia when delivered epidurally.

Question 38: What is the primary mechanism of action of heparin in surgical patients?

Directly dissolves existing clots
Inhibits platelet aggregation
Activates antithrombin III to inhibit thrombin (Correct answer)
Inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors

Correct answer: Activates antithrombin III to inhibit thrombin

Heparin works by activating antithrombin III, which then inhibits thrombin and other clotting factors.

Question 39: Which of the following is a sign of air embolism during a surgical procedure?

Gradual rise in blood pressure
Elevated core body temperature
Sudden decrease in end-tidal CO2 with hypotension (Correct answer)
Muscle fasciculations

Correct answer: Sudden decrease in end-tidal CO2 with hypotension

Air embolism causes a sudden drop in end-tidal CO2 as air obstructs pulmonary circulation, accompanied by cardiovascular collapse.

Question 40: When a conflict arises between standard procedures and a unique situation in Operating Room Setup & Management, what should a CST professional prioritize?

Strict adherence to written procedures without exception
The preference of the client or stakeholder
The most cost-effective solution available
Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation

Safety and ethics always take priority in Operating Room Setup & Management. When standard procedures don't adequately address a unique situation, consulting with experienced colleagues or supervisors ensures both safety and professional standards are maintained.

Question 41: Normothermia is maintained intraoperatively primarily because hypothermia can cause:

Excessive blood pressure and intraoperative hypertension
Coagulopathy, surgical site infection risk, and cardiac dysrhythmias (Correct answer)
Elevated blood glucose and wound dehiscence
Increased anesthetic requirement and prolonged emergence

Correct answer: Coagulopathy, surgical site infection risk, and cardiac dysrhythmias

Intraoperative hypothermia impairs platelet function and coagulation cascade enzymes, increases SSI risk, and predisposes to cardiac arrhythmias.

Question 42: What ethical consideration is most relevant to professional ethics & legal compliance in CST practice?

Prioritizing personal advancement over professional duties
Following only those rules that are convenient
Maintaining confidentiality and acting in the best interest of stakeholders (Correct answer)
Avoiding all professional development activities

Correct answer: Maintaining confidentiality and acting in the best interest of stakeholders

Maintaining confidentiality and acting in the best interest of stakeholders is the cornerstone ethical consideration for professional ethics & legal compliance in professional practice.

Question 43: What is the purpose of irrigating a surgical wound with warm normal saline intraoperatively?

To cool the electrosurgery unit
To dilute local anesthetic
To remove debris and reduce bacterial load (Correct answer)
To activate hemostatic agents

Correct answer: To remove debris and reduce bacterial load

Wound irrigation with warm saline removes blood clots, tissue debris, and bacteria, reducing infection risk.

Question 44: What is the PRIMARY purpose of continuing education requirements in Operating Room Setup & Management for CST professionals?

Fulfilling mandatory regulatory requirements only
Networking with other professionals in the field
Maintaining current knowledge and competency as the field evolves (Correct answer)
Earning additional credentials for career advancement

Correct answer: Maintaining current knowledge and competency as the field evolves

Continuing education in Operating Room Setup & Management ensures professionals maintain current knowledge and skills as standards, technologies, and best practices evolve in the Certified Surgical Technician field.

Question 45: Which standard of practice is MOST important for ensuring quality in Surgical Asepsis & Sterile Technique?

Strictly adhering to the same procedure in every situation
Minimizing documentation to focus on practical work
Following evidence-based protocols while adapting to specific circumstances (Correct answer)
Using the most advanced technology available regardless of need

Correct answer: Following evidence-based protocols while adapting to specific circumstances

Evidence-based protocols provide a foundation of proven practices, but effective Certified Surgical Technician professionals must also adapt their approach based on specific circumstances and individual case needs within Surgical Asepsis & Sterile Technique.

Question 46: Which of the following is a semi-critical item per Spaulding classification?

Blood pressure cuff
Surgical scalpel blade
Laryngoscope blade (Correct answer)
Bed rail

Correct answer: Laryngoscope blade

Laryngoscope blades contact mucous membranes and require at minimum high-level disinfection, classifying them as semi-critical items.

Question 47: During a laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the surgical technologist should ensure the CO2 insufflation pressure is maintained at which level?

5–8 mmHg
10–15 mmHg (Correct answer)
20–25 mmHg
30–35 mmHg

Correct answer: 10–15 mmHg

Intraabdominal pressure is typically maintained at 10–15 mmHg to allow adequate visualization while minimizing physiological effects.

Question 48: Which suture is most appropriate for anastomosing bowel segments during intestinal resection?

Nylon monofilament
Stainless steel wire
Silk (non-absorbable)
Polyglycolic acid (absorbable) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Polyglycolic acid (absorbable)

Absorbable sutures such as polyglycolic acid (Vicryl/Dexon) are preferred for bowel anastomoses as the suture is absorbed after the tissue has healed.

Question 49: A sterile field is considered contaminated when:

A scrub technician reaches over the unsterile instrument table
A sterile package is opened and placed on the field by the circulator from a distance of 12 inches
A scrubbed team member turns away from the field momentarily
Moisture soaks through a sterile drape to the surface below (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Moisture soaks through a sterile drape to the surface below

Strike-through contamination occurs when moisture creates a pathway for microorganisms through a sterile drape to an unsterile surface below.

Question 50: What is the purpose of a Mayo stand in the OR?

To elevate the operative field
To support the surgeon's arms during long procedures
To hold sterile supplies in reserve
To hold instruments immediately needed during surgery (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To hold instruments immediately needed during surgery

The Mayo stand holds instruments that will be immediately needed during the current phase of surgery, keeping them within easy reach.

Question 51: Which suture is MOST appropriate for closing fascia in a high-tension abdominal closure?

Silk 2-0
Plain gut 3-0
Polypropylene #1 (Correct answer)
Chromic gut 2-0

Correct answer: Polypropylene #1

Polypropylene (Prolene) #1 is a non-absorbable, high-tensile monofilament suture ideal for fascial closure under tension.

Question 52: How does risk management apply to daily practice in Surgical Asepsis & Sterile Technique for Certified Surgical Technician professionals?

Only through responding to incidents after they occur
By avoiding high-risk situations entirely
Through annual safety audits exclusively
Through proactive identification of potential hazards and implementation of preventive measures (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Through proactive identification of potential hazards and implementation of preventive measures

Effective risk management in Surgical Asepsis & Sterile Technique requires proactive hazard identification and preventive measures, not just reactive responses. This approach reduces incidents, improves outcomes, and protects both professionals and clients.

Question 53: Which patient condition warrants special attention to padding during positioning?

Patient with a healed appendectomy scar
Patient with type I diabetes
Patient with a history of migraine headaches
Elderly patient with osteoporosis and thin skin (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Elderly patient with osteoporosis and thin skin

Elderly patients with osteoporosis have fragile bones and thin, friable skin, making them highly susceptible to pressure injuries and fractures from inadequate padding.

Question 54: When pouring sterile solution into a sterile basin on the field, the circulator should hold the bottle:

At the edge of the table tilting sideways
As close to the basin as possible to prevent splashing
Directly over the center of the sterile field for accuracy
At least 6 inches above the basin without reaching over the field (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At least 6 inches above the basin without reaching over the field

The circulator holds the bottle at least 6 inches above the basin to prevent contamination while avoiding reaching over the sterile field.

Question 55: Why is the patient NPO before surgery?

To prevent aspiration during anesthesia (Correct answer)
To improve blood flow
To avoid bloating
To prevent dehydration

Correct answer: To prevent aspiration during anesthesia

Patients are required to be NPO (Nil per os, meaning 'nothing by mouth') before surgery to prevent pulmonary aspiration. During anesthesia, the body's protective reflexes, such as the gag reflex, are suppressed. If there is food or liquid in the stomach, it can be regurgitated and then aspirated into the lungs, leading to severe respiratory complications like pneumonia.

Question 56: When sterilizing a container system (rigid sterilization container), the filter or valve must be:

Checked for integrity before use and replaced if damaged or wet (Correct answer)
Left in place permanently as it is a single-use component
Inspected and replaced before every use regardless of condition
Removed during the sterilization cycle to allow steam entry

Correct answer: Checked for integrity before use and replaced if damaged or wet

Container filters and valves must be inspected before each use; damaged or moist filters compromise sterile barrier integrity and must be replaced.

Question 57: What is the correct order of postoperative counts for a laparotomy?

Counts are only required when a discrepancy is suspected
Sharps, sponges, instruments — performed before closing each layer (Correct answer)
Sponges first at closure, then instruments after the patient leaves
Instruments only, performed once at the very end of the case

Correct answer: Sharps, sponges, instruments — performed before closing each layer

Sharps, sponges, and instruments are counted before closing each anatomical layer per AORN guidelines to ensure nothing is retained.

Question 58: During a craniotomy, what is the purpose of applying bone wax to the cut edges of the skull?

To prevent infection
To attach the bone flap
To seal the dura mater
To control bleeding from the diploic bone (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To control bleeding from the diploic bone

Bone wax is a hemostatic agent mechanically packed into the diploic (cancellous) layer of the skull to control bleeding from bone edges.

Question 59: What is the correct intraabdominal CO₂ pressure maintained during most laparoscopic procedures in adults?

25–30 mmHg
18–22 mmHg
5–8 mmHg
10–15 mmHg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 10–15 mmHg

Standard pneumoperitoneum for laparoscopic surgery in adults is maintained at 10–15 mmHg to provide adequate visualization while minimizing physiologic stress.

Question 60: What is the minimum exposure time for a gravity displacement steam sterilizer operating at 250°F (121°C) for a wrapped instrument set?

15 minutes
10 minutes
45 minutes
30 minutes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30 minutes

Wrapped instrument sets in a gravity displacement cycle at 121°C require a minimum of 30 minutes exposure time.

Question 61: After a case, the scrub ST notices a surgical instrument is cracked. The correct action is to:

Remove it from service, tag it as damaged, and follow facility protocol for repair or replacement (Correct answer)
Use it for one more case if the crack is minor and then discard
Wrap it separately and return it to the sterile processing department without notification
Sterilize it as usual and flag it for inspection at next use

Correct answer: Remove it from service, tag it as damaged, and follow facility protocol for repair or replacement

Damaged instruments must be removed from service immediately, tagged, and reported per facility policy to prevent patient injury and ensure instrument integrity.

Question 62: Which structure passes through the carpal tunnel along with the flexor tendons?

Ulnar artery
Radial nerve
Median nerve (Correct answer)
Ulnar nerve

Correct answer: Median nerve

The median nerve passes through the carpal tunnel beneath the flexor retinaculum; compression causes carpal tunnel syndrome.

Question 63: When a conflict arises between standard procedures and a unique situation in Wound Closure & Healing, what should a CST professional prioritize?

The preference of the client or stakeholder
Strict adherence to written procedures without exception
Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation (Correct answer)
The most cost-effective solution available

Correct answer: Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation

Safety and ethics always take priority in Wound Closure & Healing. When standard procedures don't adequately address a unique situation, consulting with experienced colleagues or supervisors ensures both safety and professional standards are maintained.

Question 64: What is the purpose of applying a sterile dressing at the end of a procedure?

Replace the need for postoperative antibiotic therapy
Protect the wound from contamination and absorb drainage (Correct answer)
Secure surgical drains permanently in place
Indicate the surgery site for postoperative staff

Correct answer: Protect the wound from contamination and absorb drainage

A sterile dressing protects the surgical wound from environmental contamination and absorbs any drainage from the incision.

Question 65: What is the function of a smoke evacuator in the OR?

To remove excess oxygen from the field
To capture and filter surgical plume from electrosurgery or laser use (Correct answer)
To cool the electrosurgical unit
To ventilate the sterile field between instrument passes

Correct answer: To capture and filter surgical plume from electrosurgery or laser use

Smoke evacuators capture and filter surgical plume — the smoke generated by electrosurgery or laser — which contains harmful particles and viable cellular material.

Question 66: Which cardiac valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle?

Pulmonary valve
Aortic valve
Mitral valve (Correct answer)
Tricuspid valve

Correct answer: Mitral valve

The mitral (bicuspid) valve guards the left atrioventricular orifice, preventing backflow from left ventricle to left atrium during systole.

Question 67: The surgical technologist notes that the patient's allergy to latex is not documented on the surgical checklist. What is the FIRST action to take?

Proceed and use non-latex gloves personally
Document it post-operatively
Inform the circulating nurse and surgeon immediately (Correct answer)
Place a latex-free sign on the door after opening the room

Correct answer: Inform the circulating nurse and surgeon immediately

Allergies must be communicated to the entire team immediately so that latex-free supplies can be substituted before the patient enters the OR.

Question 68: The purpose of the pre-vacuum (prevacuum) phase in a dynamic-air-removal steam sterilizer is to:

Reduce the temperature required for sterilization
Dry the load after the sterilization cycle
Remove air to allow steam penetration into porous loads (Correct answer)
Increase the chamber pressure above atmospheric

Correct answer: Remove air to allow steam penetration into porous loads

The prevacuum phase evacuates air from the chamber and load so steam can penetrate porous materials uniformly.

Question 69: Which suture technique produces the most cosmetically acceptable scar with minimal cross-hatch marks?

Interrupted sutures
Subcuticular (intradermal) suture (Correct answer)
Vertical mattress sutures
Figure-of-eight sutures

Correct answer: Subcuticular (intradermal) suture

The subcuticular suture runs beneath the skin surface, avoiding percutaneous punctures and eliminating cross-hatch scarring.

Question 70: What ethical consideration is most relevant to communication & interprofessional collaboration in CST practice?

Prioritizing personal advancement over professional duties
Following only those rules that are convenient
Avoiding all professional development activities
Maintaining confidentiality and acting in the best interest of stakeholders (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintaining confidentiality and acting in the best interest of stakeholders

Maintaining confidentiality and acting in the best interest of stakeholders is the cornerstone ethical consideration for communication & interprofessional collaboration in professional practice.

Question 71: The saphenous vein is commonly harvested for coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG). Where does the great saphenous vein originate?

Medial malleolus
Popliteal fossa
Femoral triangle
Dorsal venous arch of the foot (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dorsal venous arch of the foot

The great saphenous vein arises from the medial end of the dorsal venous arch of the foot and ascends along the medial aspect of the leg.

Question 72: When the surgeon requests a 'running suture,' the ST should anticipate providing:

Staples for skin closure
A continuous strand on a needle with no free ties (Correct answer)
Multiple interrupted pre-tied sutures
A pledgeted mattress suture

Correct answer: A continuous strand on a needle with no free ties

A running (continuous) suture uses a single uninterrupted strand passed repeatedly through tissue, requiring only two knots total.

Question 73: During a laparotomy, the surgeon requests a self-retaining retractor. Which of the following is MOST appropriate?

Army-Navy retractor
Deaver retractor
Richardson retractor
Balfour retractor (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Balfour retractor

The Balfour retractor is a self-retaining abdominal retractor that holds the wound open without an assistant.

Question 74: What is the proper technique for opening a peel-pack onto the sterile field?

Cut the package open with sterile scissors before presenting
Hand the entire sealed package to the scrub technologist
Peel the edges back and present or flip the item onto the field (Correct answer)
Tear the package and drop the item from above the sterile field

Correct answer: Peel the edges back and present or flip the item onto the field

Peel-pack items are opened by peeling the edges apart and either presenting the item to the scrub or flipping it carefully onto the sterile field.

Question 75: Which drug used in surgery can cause 'red man syndrome' if infused too rapidly?

Vancomycin (Correct answer)
Cefazolin
Clindamycin
Metronidazole

Correct answer: Vancomycin

Rapid infusion of vancomycin causes histamine release resulting in flushing, erythema, and hypotension known as red man syndrome.

Question 76: When passing a needle holder loaded with suture to the surgeon, the scrub technologist should:

Pass it handle-first with the needle pointing away (Correct answer)
Place it on the sterile field for the surgeon to pick up
Hand it needle-first to speed closure
Pass it with the needle unclamped

Correct answer: Pass it handle-first with the needle pointing away

Suture is passed handle-first with the needle pointing away from both the surgeon's and technologist's hands to prevent needlestick injury.

Question 77: When implementing evidence-based practice & research methods practices, what should a CST professional prioritize first?

Compliance with established standards and protocols (Correct answer)
Cost reduction at all levels
Personal convenience and efficiency
Speed of completion over thoroughness

Correct answer: Compliance with established standards and protocols

Compliance with established standards and protocols must be the first priority, as it ensures safety, quality, and legal adherence in professional practice.

Question 78: Which suture material is MOST appropriate for closing skin in a patient with a known latex allergy?

Chromic gut
Surgical silk
Nylon monofilament (Correct answer)
Braided polyester

Correct answer: Nylon monofilament

Nylon monofilament (e.g., Ethilon) is a synthetic suture with no latex components and is safe for patients with latex allergies.

Question 79: Standard contact time for high-level disinfection using 2% glutaraldehyde at room temperature is:

45 minutes
20 minutes (Correct answer)
5 minutes
10 minutes

Correct answer: 20 minutes

A minimum of 20 minutes at room temperature in 2% glutaraldehyde is required to achieve high-level disinfection.

Question 80: An event-related sterility maintenance policy means that a sterilized item remains sterile until:

The package is compromised by an event such as wetting, tearing, or puncture (Correct answer)
30 days after the sterilization date regardless of storage conditions
The item is removed from a closed storage cabinet
A fixed expiration date printed on the package

Correct answer: The package is compromised by an event such as wetting, tearing, or puncture

Event-related sterility holds that sterility is maintained indefinitely as long as the packaging integrity is not compromised.

Question 81: Which of the following is an example of a break in sterile technique during gowning?

Allowing the circulator to tie the back of the gown
Keeping hands above the waist while gowning
Touching the outside of the gown before the circulator ties it (Correct answer)
Inserting arms into the sleeves without extending hands past the cuffs

Correct answer: Touching the outside of the gown before the circulator ties it

Touching the outside of the gown before it is secured and before donning sterile gloves contaminates the sterile outer surface.

Question 82: The Trendelenburg position places the patient in which orientation?

Prone with hips elevated
Lateral with operative side up
Head elevated, feet lowered at 45 degrees
Supine with head lowered and feet elevated (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Supine with head lowered and feet elevated

Trendelenburg places the patient supine with the head tilted downward and feet elevated, shifting abdominal contents toward the head to improve pelvic organ exposure.

Question 83: When a free tie (ligature) is passed to the surgeon, it should be:

Handed as a single strand coiled loosely
Placed in the neutral zone folded in half
Stretched between both hands of the ST (Correct answer)
Loaded on a clamp in the surgeon's hand

Correct answer: Stretched between both hands of the ST

The ST stretches the ligature between both hands to present it clearly so the surgeon can grasp the center without tangles.

Question 84: How should a CST professional handle a situation where quality assurance & performance improvement protocols conflict with practical constraints?

Avoid addressing the conflict entirely
Document the conflict and seek guidance from appropriate authorities (Correct answer)
Make a unilateral decision without consultation
Always ignore the protocols in favor of practicality

Correct answer: Document the conflict and seek guidance from appropriate authorities

When protocols conflict with practical constraints, the professional approach is to document the conflict and seek guidance, ensuring transparency and compliance while working toward a resolution.

Question 85: A sterile item falls below the level of the sterile field edge. What should the scrub technologist do?

Consider it contaminated and request a replacement (Correct answer)
Ask the circulator to inspect the item before using it
Retrieve it quickly since it was only briefly below the field
Wipe it with a sterile towel before returning it to the field

Correct answer: Consider it contaminated and request a replacement

Any item that falls below the level of the sterile field is considered contaminated and must be replaced.

Question 86: During a procedure, the scrub technologist notices the surgeon's gown sleeve has contacted an unsterile surface. The correct action is to:

Immediately inform the surgeon and replace the contaminated gown (Correct answer)
Inform the circulator and continue the case, monitoring closely
Continue the case since brief contact does not cause contamination
Apply a sterile drape over the contaminated area

Correct answer: Immediately inform the surgeon and replace the contaminated gown

Any breach of sterility requires immediate correction; the contaminated gown must be replaced to maintain the sterile field.

Question 87: What is the PRIMARY purpose of continuing education requirements in Anatomy & Physiology for Surgery for CST professionals?

Earning additional credentials for career advancement
Maintaining current knowledge and competency as the field evolves (Correct answer)
Fulfilling mandatory regulatory requirements only
Networking with other professionals in the field

Correct answer: Maintaining current knowledge and competency as the field evolves

Continuing education in Anatomy & Physiology for Surgery ensures professionals maintain current knowledge and skills as standards, technologies, and best practices evolve in the Certified Surgical Technician field.

Question 88: What is the function of cardioplegic solution administered during cardiac surgery?

Dilate the coronary arteries
Arrest the heart and protect the myocardium during ischemia (Correct answer)
Maintain normal cardiac rhythm
Prevent atrial fibrillation postoperatively

Correct answer: Arrest the heart and protect the myocardium during ischemia

Cardioplegic solution (high-potassium, cold crystalloid or blood) depolarizes the myocardium to arrest the heart and reduce metabolic demand during ischemic time.

Question 89: What is the most reliable method of sterilization?

Dry heat
Boiling water
Steam under pressure (autoclave) (Correct answer)
Alcohol wipes

Correct answer: Steam under pressure (autoclave)

Steam sterilization, using an autoclave, is considered the most reliable and effective method for sterilizing heat- and moisture-stable medical instruments. The combination of high temperature and pressure ensures the destruction of all microorganisms, including spores, which are highly resistant. This method is crucial in surgical settings to prevent surgical site infections.

Question 90: How should sharps be handled after surgery?

Thrown in trash
Place in approved sharps container (Correct answer)
Handed to the janitor
Stored on back table

Correct answer: Place in approved sharps container

Sharps, such as needles, scalpels, and other pointed instruments, pose a significant risk of injury and transmission of bloodborne pathogens. After use, they must be immediately placed into a puncture-resistant, leak-proof, and clearly labeled sharps container. This practice protects healthcare workers and prevents accidental needlestick injuries, ensuring a safe environment.

Question 91: Preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis is typically administered within which time window before skin incision?

Immediately after skin prep
At the conclusion of the procedure
60 minutes before (Correct answer)
4–6 hours before

Correct answer: 60 minutes before

Evidence-based guidelines recommend IV antibiotic prophylaxis within 60 minutes before incision to ensure therapeutic tissue levels at the time of skin opening.

Question 92: Which action best prevents surgical site infection?

Using sterile technique and hand hygiene (Correct answer)
Wearing double scrubs
Rushing procedures
Storing equipment openly

Correct answer: Using sterile technique and hand hygiene

Surgical site infections (SSIs) are a major concern in healthcare, and their prevention relies heavily on strict adherence to sterile technique and meticulous hand hygiene. Sterile technique minimizes the introduction of microorganisms into the surgical field, while hand hygiene reduces the pathogen load on healthcare workers' hands. These combined practices are fundamental to patient safety during surgery.

Question 93: A surgical team member who is unscrubbed (circulator) should maintain what minimum distance from the sterile field?

6 inches
12 inches (Correct answer)
18 inches
There is no minimum; they may work at the edge

Correct answer: 12 inches

Unscrubbed personnel should remain at least 12 inches from the sterile field to prevent contamination by inadvertent contact.

Question 94: Which retractor system is most commonly used to expose the lumbar spine during a posterior spinal fusion?

Bookwalter retractor
Taylor retractor
Weitlaner self-retaining retractor (Correct answer)
Gelpi retractor

Correct answer: Weitlaner self-retaining retractor

The Weitlaner self-retaining retractor provides sustained lateral retraction of the paraspinal muscles during posterior lumbar spine approaches.

Question 95: When a wound closure using staples is performed, the scrub technologist should ensure the stapler is loaded and:

Kept on the back table until the surgeon specifically requests it
Dipped in saline to lubricate the staples before use
Handed to the surgeon with the safety engaged until ready to fire (Correct answer)
Pre-fired once to test it before use on the patient

Correct answer: Handed to the surgeon with the safety engaged until ready to fire

Skin staplers should be handed to the surgeon with the safety mechanism engaged to prevent accidental firing and unintended tissue injury.

Question 96: Which vasoactive drug is a first-line vasopressor for septic shock and acts on alpha and beta adrenergic receptors?

Phenylephrine
Norepinephrine (Correct answer)
Dobutamine
Vasopressin

Correct answer: Norepinephrine

Norepinephrine is the first-line vasopressor for septic shock, acting primarily on alpha-1 receptors to increase systemic vascular resistance.

Question 97: Which local anesthetic is associated with cardiotoxicity and cardiac arrest if accidentally injected intravascularly in high doses?

Lidocaine
Mepivacaine
Prilocaine
Bupivacaine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bupivacaine

Bupivacaine has high cardiac toxicity due to its high lipid solubility and strong binding to cardiac sodium channels, making resuscitation from accidental IV injection difficult.

Question 98: What is the correct action if the surgical consent form is incomplete?

Delay surgery until after rounds
Notify the circulating nurse immediately (Correct answer)
Proceed with verbal consent
Ask the anesthesiologist to sign

Correct answer: Notify the circulating nurse immediately

An incomplete surgical consent form indicates that the patient has not provided full informed consent for the procedure. The circulating nurse is responsible for ensuring all documentation is accurate and complete, and must be notified immediately to address and rectify the issue before surgery can legally and ethically proceed.

Question 99: During a mastectomy, which nerve must be preserved to prevent winging of the scapula?

Intercostobrachial nerve
Medial pectoral nerve
Thoracodorsal nerve
Long thoracic nerve (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Long thoracic nerve

The long thoracic nerve innervates the serratus anterior; damage causes the medial border of the scapula to protrude ('wing').

Question 100: Which preoperative assessment finding would most concern the surgical team regarding anesthesia induction?

Last oral intake 8 hours ago
BMI of 22
Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg
Hemoglobin A1c of 11.2% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hemoglobin A1c of 11.2%

Poorly controlled diabetes (HbA1c >9%) increases infection risk and impairs wound healing; it may also affect anesthesia management and surgical timing.

Question 101: Which of the following best describes electrocautery use?

Used for wound dressing
Used to suction fluids
Used to cut and cauterize tissue (Correct answer)
Used for irrigation

Correct answer: Used to cut and cauterize tissue

Electrocautery utilizes high-frequency electrical current to generate heat, which is applied to tissue for precise cutting and coagulation. This dual function allows surgeons to make incisions while simultaneously sealing blood vessels, effectively minimizing bleeding during the operation.

Question 102: Which antiseptic is commonly used in surgical skin prep?

Hydrogen peroxide
Povidone-iodine (Correct answer)
Sterile water
Alcohol wipes

Correct answer: Povidone-iodine

Povidone-iodine is a widely used antiseptic for surgical skin preparation due to its broad-spectrum antimicrobial activity. It effectively kills bacteria, viruses, and fungi on the skin, significantly reducing the microbial load and lowering the risk of surgical site infections.

Question 103: In orthopedic surgery, what is the primary purpose of a pneumatic tourniquet applied to the extremity?

To stabilize the fracture site
To reduce postoperative edema
To prevent nerve damage
To provide a bloodless operative field (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To provide a bloodless operative field

A pneumatic tourniquet occludes arterial blood flow to create a bloodless field, improving visibility and reducing blood loss during extremity procedures.

Question 104: The primary purpose of a suction-irrigator device during laparoscopy is to:

Remove blood and fluid while introducing saline for visibility (Correct answer)
Provide pneumoperitoneum
Staple bowel ends together
Seal tissue with heat

Correct answer: Remove blood and fluid while introducing saline for visibility

The suction-irrigator simultaneously aspirates blood and debris and delivers saline irrigation to maintain clear visualization of the operative field.

Question 105: Which PPE is essential during decontamination?

Scrubs only
Gloves, gown, mask, and eye protection (Correct answer)
Hairnet only
Only gloves

Correct answer: Gloves, gown, mask, and eye protection

Decontamination involves handling potentially infectious materials, requiring comprehensive personal protective equipment (PPE) to protect healthcare workers. Gloves prevent skin contact with contaminants, gowns protect clothing, and masks and eye protection shield mucous membranes from splashes or aerosols. This full ensemble minimizes exposure risks and ensures safety during the cleaning process.

Question 106: What is the primary purpose of quality assurance & performance improvement in the context of Certified Surgical Technician?

To replace established industry guidelines
To reduce organizational costs exclusively
To ensure consistent quality and professional accountability (Correct answer)
To eliminate the need for ongoing training

Correct answer: To ensure consistent quality and professional accountability

Quality Assurance & Performance Improvement in Certified Surgical Technician primarily ensures consistent quality and professional accountability, forming the foundation of competent practice in this field.

Question 107: When a surgical glove is punctured during a procedure, the scrub technologist should:

Notify the surgeon quietly and change gloves during a convenient break
Immediately inform the surgeon, step away, remove the glove, inspect for injury, and apply a new glove (Correct answer)
Continue the case and change gloves at the end
Double-glove over the punctured glove to seal the hole

Correct answer: Immediately inform the surgeon, step away, remove the glove, inspect for injury, and apply a new glove

A punctured glove must be changed immediately after notifying the surgeon; the hand should be inspected for injury and proper hand hygiene performed before reglowing.

Question 108: Sterile gloves torn or punctured during a procedure must be:

Left in place until a critical step in the procedure is complete
Covered with a second pair of sterile gloves over the damaged pair
Assessed for depth of puncture before deciding to change
Changed immediately after notifying the surgeon (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Changed immediately after notifying the surgeon

Torn or punctured gloves must be changed immediately because the barrier is broken and microorganisms can migrate to the sterile field.

Question 109: How should a CST professional handle a situation where communication & interprofessional collaboration protocols conflict with practical constraints?

Document the conflict and seek guidance from appropriate authorities (Correct answer)
Make a unilateral decision without consultation
Always ignore the protocols in favor of practicality
Avoid addressing the conflict entirely

Correct answer: Document the conflict and seek guidance from appropriate authorities

When protocols conflict with practical constraints, the professional approach is to document the conflict and seek guidance, ensuring transparency and compliance while working toward a resolution.

Question 110: Which instrument is used to clip the cystic duct and cystic artery during a laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

Harmonic scalpel
Ligaclip applier (Correct answer)
Endoloop ligature
Babcock clamp

Correct answer: Ligaclip applier

A Ligaclip applier (endoscopic clip applier) is used to apply titanium clips to the cystic duct and cystic artery before transection.

Question 111: Which procedure involves excising and grafting a segment of autologous bone to repair a non-union fracture?

Curettage only
Bone grafting (autograft harvest and implantation) (Correct answer)
Sequestrectomy
Intramedullary nailing alone

Correct answer: Bone grafting (autograft harvest and implantation)

Autologous bone grafting harvests bone (commonly from the iliac crest) and implants it at the non-union site to provide osteogenic, osteoinductive, and osteoconductive support.

Question 112: Which of the following is true regarding preoperative marking of the surgical site?

Marking is optional for procedures involving a single midline organ
The scrub technologist is responsible for marking the surgical site
The surgeon marks the site before the patient enters the OR using a permanent marker (Correct answer)
Marking should be done after the patient is anesthetized

Correct answer: The surgeon marks the site before the patient enters the OR using a permanent marker

The operating surgeon marks the intended surgical site with a permanent marker before the patient enters the OR, ideally with the patient awake and participating.

Question 113: What is the primary goal of preoperative skin preparation?

Enhancing skin elasticity
Moisturizing the skin
Warming the skin for comfort
Reducing microbial count near the incision site (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reducing microbial count near the incision site

The primary goal of preoperative skin preparation, often called 'prepping,' is to significantly reduce the number of microorganisms on the patient's skin around the planned incision site. This critical aseptic technique minimizes the risk of surgical site infections (SSIs) by preventing bacteria from entering the surgical wound during the procedure, ensuring patient safety.

Question 114: A patient scheduled for thyroid surgery reports wearing a pacemaker. Which piece of equipment must be discussed with the surgeon before use?

Sequential compression device
Pulse oximeter
Warming blanket
Monopolar electrosurgical unit (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Monopolar electrosurgical unit

Monopolar ESU current can interfere with pacemaker function; bipolar ESU or other alternatives should be considered and the surgical team notified.

Question 115: Which statement about sterile field preparation timing is correct?

The sterile field should be set up the evening before to save time
Sterile fields should be set up as close to the time of use as possible (Correct answer)
Sterile fields can be set up 2 hours in advance if covered
Setup time does not affect sterility if the room is clean

Correct answer: Sterile fields should be set up as close to the time of use as possible

Sterile fields should be established as close to the time of use as possible because longer exposure time increases the risk of contamination.

Question 116: After a postoperative case, the scrub ST notices a suture needle is unaccounted for. An X-ray is taken and the needle is NOT visible. What is the appropriate next step?

Discharge the patient immediately to avoid liability
Re-scrub the ST and restart the counts from the beginning
Assume the count was wrong and proceed without further action
Document the incident and complete an occurrence report per facility policy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Document the incident and complete an occurrence report per facility policy

An unresolved count discrepancy requires an occurrence/incident report and full documentation regardless of X-ray results.

Question 117: Which postoperative task is the scrub ST responsible for regarding sharps disposal?

Passing uncapped sharps back to the circulator for disposal
Leaving sharps on the Mayo stand for instrument processing staff
Placing all sharps in an approved puncture-resistant sharps container (Correct answer)
Recapping needles with one hand and discarding in regular waste

Correct answer: Placing all sharps in an approved puncture-resistant sharps container

All sharps must be disposed of in approved puncture-resistant containers to comply with OSHA bloodborne pathogen standards.

Question 118: When a conflict arises between standard procedures and a unique situation in Specialty Surgical Procedures, what should a CST professional prioritize?

The most cost-effective solution available
The preference of the client or stakeholder
Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation (Correct answer)
Strict adherence to written procedures without exception

Correct answer: Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation

Safety and ethics always take priority in Specialty Surgical Procedures. When standard procedures don't adequately address a unique situation, consulting with experienced colleagues or supervisors ensures both safety and professional standards are maintained.

Question 119: Which technology trend is most likely to impact evidence-based practice & research methods in the CST field in coming years?

Complete elimination of human professionals
Return to exclusively paper-based systems
Reduction in the need for professional certification
Digital tools for enhanced data collection, analysis, and reporting (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Digital tools for enhanced data collection, analysis, and reporting

Digital tools for enhanced data collection, analysis, and reporting represent the most significant and practical technology trend impacting evidence-based practice & research methods, augmenting rather than replacing professional expertise.

Question 120: How does continuing education relate to quality assurance & performance improvement for CST certified professionals?

It is only needed when changing employers
It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and best practices (Correct answer)
It is required only for entry-level practitioners
It is optional and rarely impacts practice quality

Correct answer: It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and best practices

Continuing education ensures CST professionals stay current with evolving standards, technologies, and best practices in quality assurance & performance improvement, maintaining competency throughout their careers.

Question 121: A specimen labeled 'right ovary' is removed. The scrub technologist should:

Place it in formalin only if the surgeon verbally confirms it is benign
Place it in the most convenient container on the back table
Hold the specimen until the end of the case to batch all specimens together
Confirm the specimen label with the surgeon and pass it to the circulator immediately with correct laterality noted (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Confirm the specimen label with the surgeon and pass it to the circulator immediately with correct laterality noted

Specimens must be confirmed with the surgeon and passed promptly with correct identification, including laterality, to prevent mislabeling errors.

Question 122: What is a common challenge professionals face when applying professional ethics & legal compliance principles in Certified Surgical Technician?

Excessive simplicity of industry regulations
Having too much support from colleagues
Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application (Correct answer)
Lack of any professional development opportunities

Correct answer: Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application

Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application is a well-recognized challenge, as real-world scenarios often present complexities not covered in standard training.

Question 123: Which principle best explains why sterile team members should face each other when passing in the OR?

Sterile-to-sterile contact is safer than sterile-to-unsterile contact (Correct answer)
It prevents accidental instrument drops
To maintain visual communication during the procedure
It allows the circulator to monitor the sterile field more easily

Correct answer: Sterile-to-sterile contact is safer than sterile-to-unsterile contact

When sterile team members must pass each other, they face front-to-front so sterile surfaces contact sterile surfaces rather than risking back-to-front unsterile contact.

Question 124: Which type of bone cell is responsible for bone resorption?

Osteocyte
Chondroblast
Osteoclast (Correct answer)
Osteoblast

Correct answer: Osteoclast

Osteoclasts are large multinucleated cells that resorb bone matrix by secreting acids and proteolytic enzymes.

Question 125: Peracetic acid (PAA) sterilization systems are best suited for:

Endoscopes and heat-sensitive devices that can be immersed (Correct answer)
Bulk sterilization of large linen packs
Implantable devices requiring long shelf life
Dry, heat-tolerant metal instruments

Correct answer: Endoscopes and heat-sensitive devices that can be immersed

Peracetic acid systems like STERIS provide rapid liquid sterilization ideal for heat-sensitive, immersible instruments such as endoscopes.

Question 126: Which biological indicator organism is used to verify the efficacy of ethylene oxide (EO) sterilization?

Bacillus subtilis var. niger
Clostridium sporogenes
Bacillus atrophaeus (Correct answer)
Geobacillus stearothermophilus

Correct answer: Bacillus atrophaeus

Bacillus atrophaeus (formerly B. subtilis var. niger) spores are the standard biological indicator for ethylene oxide sterilization cycles.

Question 127: What is the proper sequence for passing a sharp instrument such as a loaded scalpel?

Hand it blade-first so the surgeon can grip the handle
Hand it directly handle-first with the blade exposed
Use the neutral zone (no-touch technique) to place and retrieve the instrument (Correct answer)
Toss it gently to the surgeon

Correct answer: Use the neutral zone (no-touch technique) to place and retrieve the instrument

The neutral zone (hands-free technique) requires placing sharps in a designated area rather than hand-to-hand transfer to prevent needlestick injuries.

Question 128: In Specialty Surgical Procedures, what is the FIRST step a CST professional should take when encountering a new case or situation?

Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information (Correct answer)
Implement an immediate solution based on past experience
Document the situation and wait for further instructions
Consult with a supervisor before taking any action

Correct answer: Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information

In Specialty Surgical Procedures, a thorough initial assessment ensures all relevant factors are identified before deciding on an appropriate course of action. This systematic approach is fundamental to Certified Surgical Technician practice.

Question 129: Which action is part of the surgical technologist's role during the preoperative count?

Counting all instruments, sharps, and sponges concurrently with the circulating nurse (Correct answer)
Delegating the count to the RNFA
Performing the count alone before the circulator arrives
Counting only sharps since sponges are radio-opaque

Correct answer: Counting all instruments, sharps, and sponges concurrently with the circulating nurse

Both the scrub surgical technologist and the circulating nurse perform counts together and simultaneously to ensure accuracy and shared accountability.

Question 130: What is a common challenge professionals face when applying communication & interprofessional collaboration principles in Certified Surgical Technician?

Excessive simplicity of industry regulations
Having too much support from colleagues
Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application (Correct answer)
Lack of any professional development opportunities

Correct answer: Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application

Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application is a well-recognized challenge, as real-world scenarios often present complexities not covered in standard training.

Question 131: The Kerrison rongeur is most commonly used during which procedure?

Laminectomy (Correct answer)
Thyroidectomy
Cholecystectomy
Splenectomy

Correct answer: Laminectomy

The Kerrison rongeur is a spoon-shaped biting instrument used in spinal surgery to remove bone and ligament during laminectomy procedures.

Question 132: What is the PRIMARY purpose of continuing education requirements in Surgical Pharmacology for CST professionals?

Earning additional credentials for career advancement
Networking with other professionals in the field
Fulfilling mandatory regulatory requirements only
Maintaining current knowledge and competency as the field evolves (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintaining current knowledge and competency as the field evolves

Continuing education in Surgical Pharmacology ensures professionals maintain current knowledge and skills as standards, technologies, and best practices evolve in the Certified Surgical Technician field.

Question 133: After the final sponge count is confirmed correct, what is the surgical technologist's next priority before closing?

Begin breaking down the back table immediately
Remove all instruments from the sterile field
Turn off the overhead surgical lights
Document the count and inform the surgeon (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Document the count and inform the surgeon

The ST must document the correct count and verbally inform the surgeon so the incision can be safely closed.

Question 134: A sterile wrapper that has a hole of any size is considered:

Unsterile regardless of hole size (Correct answer)
Sterile if the hole is smaller than 1 cm
Compromised only if the item inside was visibly touched
Acceptable if covered by a second outer wrap

Correct answer: Unsterile regardless of hole size

Any breach in a sterile wrapper, regardless of size, compromises sterility and the item must be reprocessed.

Question 135: Which instrument is used to hold back tissue or organs that are not part of the operative site?

Clamp
Needle holder
Retractor (Correct answer)
Trocar

Correct answer: Retractor

Retractors are used to hold tissue or organs out of the operative field, providing exposure without requiring additional hands on the field.

Question 136: A vessel loop is MOST commonly used intraoperatively to:

Mark surgical margins on tissue
Ligate bleeding vessels permanently
Approximate wound edges temporarily
Retract and isolate vessels or nerves (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Retract and isolate vessels or nerves

Vessel loops are silicone loops used to retract and isolate delicate structures such as blood vessels and nerves without damaging them.

Question 137: When preparing a back table, where should sharps (needles, blades) be placed?

In the circulator's hands for safekeeping
Loosely on a towel in the far corner of the back table
In a designated sharps container on the back table or in a needle mat (Correct answer)
On the Mayo stand only, never on the back table

Correct answer: In a designated sharps container on the back table or in a needle mat

Sharps are contained in a designated needle mat or sharps container on the sterile back table to prevent accidental needlestick injuries during the procedure.

Question 138: What is the primary purpose of professional ethics & legal compliance in the context of Certified Surgical Technician?

To eliminate the need for ongoing training
To replace established industry guidelines
To reduce organizational costs exclusively
To ensure consistent quality and professional accountability (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To ensure consistent quality and professional accountability

Professional Ethics & Legal Compliance in Certified Surgical Technician primarily ensures consistent quality and professional accountability, forming the foundation of competent practice in this field.

Question 139: A Bookwalter retractor system differs from a Balfour retractor in that the Bookwalter:

Is disposable and single-use only
Requires an assistant to maintain position throughout the procedure
Attaches to the OR table rail and offers multiple interchangeable blade configurations (Correct answer)
Is only used in thoracic surgery

Correct answer: Attaches to the OR table rail and offers multiple interchangeable blade configurations

The Bookwalter system mounts to the OR table rail and accommodates a variety of interchangeable blades for complex, long retraction needs.

Question 140: Capnography (end-tidal CO2 monitoring) is primarily used intraoperatively to confirm:

Oxygen saturation levels
Correct endotracheal tube placement and ventilation adequacy (Correct answer)
Cardiac rhythm
Blood pressure stability

Correct answer: Correct endotracheal tube placement and ventilation adequacy

A consistent CO2 waveform on capnography confirms the endotracheal tube is in the trachea and that ventilation is effective.

Question 141: In Operating Room Setup & Management, what is the FIRST step a CST professional should take when encountering a new case or situation?

Implement an immediate solution based on past experience
Consult with a supervisor before taking any action
Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information (Correct answer)
Document the situation and wait for further instructions

Correct answer: Conduct a comprehensive assessment and gather all relevant information

In Operating Room Setup & Management, a thorough initial assessment ensures all relevant factors are identified before deciding on an appropriate course of action. This systematic approach is fundamental to Certified Surgical Technician practice.

Question 142: What action should be taken if there is doubt about the sterility of an item on the sterile field?

Use the item but document the concern
Ask a senior team member to assess the item
Inspect it visually for obvious contamination before using
Consider it contaminated and remove it from the field (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Consider it contaminated and remove it from the field

The principle 'when in doubt, throw it out' means any questionable item must be removed from the sterile field and replaced.

Question 143: Which position is most commonly used for laparoscopic cholecystectomy?

Prone with arms extended
Supine with reverse Trendelenburg (Correct answer)
Lateral decubitus
Lithotomy with steep Trendelenburg

Correct answer: Supine with reverse Trendelenburg

Supine with reverse Trendelenburg allows gravity to displace abdominal organs away from the operative field during laparoscopic cholecystectomy.

Question 144: What should be done with biohazard waste?

Flush down the sink
Put in regular trash
Dispose in red biohazard bags (Correct answer)
Store in cabinets

Correct answer: Dispose in red biohazard bags

Biohazard waste, which includes items contaminated with blood or other potentially infectious materials, must be handled and disposed of according to strict protocols. Placing it in clearly identifiable red biohazard bags ensures it is segregated from general waste and sent for proper treatment, such as incineration or autoclaving. This prevents the spread of pathogens and protects public health.

Question 145: During a procedure, an unsterile person needs to walk past a sterile field. They should:

Face the sterile field while passing
Face away from the sterile field while passing at a safe distance (Correct answer)
Walk between two sterile fields if space requires
Pass as close as possible to reduce time near the field

Correct answer: Face away from the sterile field while passing at a safe distance

Unsterile persons must face away from the sterile field and maintain a safe distance to prevent accidental contamination.

Question 146: The postoperative instrument count reveals one extra instrument compared to the opening count. The most appropriate action is to:

Search the field and drapes, then report the discrepancy immediately (Correct answer)
Remove the extra instrument silently and adjust the count sheet
Request a new count sheet and start over from the opening count
Assume a counting error and proceed to close

Correct answer: Search the field and drapes, then report the discrepancy immediately

Any count discrepancy — whether over or under — requires immediate search and reporting because it may indicate a misidentified instrument or error that could affect patient safety.

Question 147: Which standard of practice is MOST important for ensuring quality in Perioperative Patient Care?

Strictly adhering to the same procedure in every situation
Following evidence-based protocols while adapting to specific circumstances (Correct answer)
Using the most advanced technology available regardless of need
Minimizing documentation to focus on practical work

Correct answer: Following evidence-based protocols while adapting to specific circumstances

Question 148: When transferring an unconscious patient from the OR table to a gurney, the surgical technologist should:

Allow the circulator to perform the transfer alone
Move the patient quickly to minimize exposure time
Transfer the patient without a draw sheet to prevent skin shear
Ensure at least four personnel are available and protect the airway (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ensure at least four personnel are available and protect the airway

Safe patient transfer requires adequate personnel to prevent falls and protect the patient's airway and IV lines.

Question 149: When the sterile field must be left unattended between cases, what is the appropriate action?

The sterile field cannot be left unattended and must be broken down (Correct answer)
Cover it with a sterile drape and resume when ready
Leave it uncovered if the room is restricted access
Place a 'Sterile Field' sign to prevent others from touching it

Correct answer: The sterile field cannot be left unattended and must be broken down

A sterile field that is left unattended cannot be considered sterile and must be broken down because no one can guarantee its integrity.

Question 150: When setting up a back table, the surgical technologist should arrange instruments in what order?

Order of anticipated use during the procedure (Correct answer)
Alphabetical order by instrument name
Sterilization date order
Largest to smallest by size

Correct answer: Order of anticipated use during the procedure

Instruments on the back table are organized by order of anticipated use so they can be passed efficiently during the procedure.

Question 151: What is the name of the tough fibrous layer covering individual muscles?

Fascia
Perimysium
Endomysium
Epimysium (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Epimysium

The epimysium is the dense connective tissue sheath that surrounds the entire muscle belly.

Question 152: What should be done with used instruments after surgery?

Discarded
Counted and sent to decontamination (Correct answer)
Rinsed and reused immediately
Stored in the OR

Correct answer: Counted and sent to decontamination

After surgery, all used instruments must be meticulously counted to ensure no items are left inside the patient or misplaced, which is a critical patient safety measure. Following the count, they are transported to the decontamination area for thorough cleaning, sterilization, and preparation for future use. This process is essential for infection control and maintaining a sterile environment.

Question 153: What is the BEST description of tertiary intention wound healing (delayed primary closure)?

Wound closed with skin graft on the same day as injury
Wound allowed to granulate completely without closure
Wound left open initially, then surgically closed after infection risk decreases (Correct answer)
Immediate approximation of wound edges after injury

Correct answer: Wound left open initially, then surgically closed after infection risk decreases

Tertiary intention (delayed primary closure) involves leaving a contaminated wound open for several days to allow infection to resolve before surgical closure.

Question 154: Which type of OR table attachment is used to support the patient's arm during procedures requiring access to the brachial plexus area?

Kidney rest
Shoulder brace
Armboard (Correct answer)
Beach chair adapter

Correct answer: Armboard

An armboard attaches to the OR table to support and position the patient's arm during procedures requiring upper extremity access.

Question 155: Foley catheter insertion in the perioperative setting is primarily performed to:

Prevent urinary tract infections in surgical patients
Administer irrigation fluids directly to the bladder
Detect renal artery injury during abdominal surgery
Measure urine output and decompress the bladder during lengthy procedures (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Measure urine output and decompress the bladder during lengthy procedures

Indwelling urinary catheters allow continuous monitoring of urine output and prevent bladder distension during prolonged surgeries.

Question 156: Which layer of the abdominal wall is typically closed with a continuous (running) suture to prevent evisceration?

Skin
Fascia (Correct answer)
Peritoneum
Subcutaneous fat

Correct answer: Fascia

The fascial layer provides the primary structural strength of the abdominal wall closure and is sutured with a continuous technique to distribute tension evenly.

Question 157: Which intraoperative position requires the surgical technologist to be aware of brachial plexus injury risk?

Lithotomy with standard stirrups
Supine with arms tucked
Supine with arm abducted >90° (Correct answer)
Prone with arms at sides

Correct answer: Supine with arm abducted >90°

Abducting the arm beyond 90° on an armboard stretches the brachial plexus, potentially causing neuropraxia or permanent nerve injury.

Question 158: Which drug is used to induce deliberate hypotension during surgery to reduce blood loss?

Epinephrine
Phenylephrine
Dopamine
Sodium nitroprusside (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sodium nitroprusside

Sodium nitroprusside is a potent, short-acting vasodilator that can be titrated to achieve controlled hypotension and minimize intraoperative blood loss.

Question 159: When counting sponges at the beginning of a case, how many sponges are typically found in each standardized pack?

15
20
10 (Correct answer)
5

Correct answer: 10

Standardized sponge packs typically contain 10 sponges, and they must be counted before use and reconciled at closure.

Question 160: During preoperative patient identification, the surgical technologist should verify the patient's identity using which minimum standard per the Joint Commission?

Surgeon's name and procedure type
Patient's name only
Room number and bed assignment
At least two patient identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At least two patient identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth)

The Joint Commission requires at least two independent patient identifiers (commonly full name and date of birth) to prevent wrong-patient errors.

Question 161: Which intravenous induction agent is most associated with pain on injection and is chosen for its rapid onset and short duration?

Etomidate
Propofol (Correct answer)
Midazolam
Ketamine

Correct answer: Propofol

Propofol frequently causes pain upon IV injection but provides rapid, smooth induction and quick recovery due to its short context-sensitive half-life.

Question 162: When a sterile team member's gown becomes wet during a procedure, what is the correct action?

Apply a sterile drape over the wet area and continue
Notify the surgeon but continue if the area is not near the field
Consider the gown contaminated and change immediately (Correct answer)
Continue the procedure and change the gown after

Correct answer: Consider the gown contaminated and change immediately

Strike-through contamination occurs when moisture penetrates a gown, rendering it non-sterile and requiring immediate gown change.

Question 163: When a conflict arises between standard procedures and a unique situation in Anatomy & Physiology for Surgery, what should a CST professional prioritize?

Strict adherence to written procedures without exception
The preference of the client or stakeholder
The most cost-effective solution available
Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Safety and ethical obligations while seeking expert consultation

Safety and ethics always take priority in Anatomy & Physiology for Surgery. When standard procedures don't adequately address a unique situation, consulting with experienced colleagues or supervisors ensures both safety and professional standards are maintained.

Question 164: Which factor most significantly affects the efficacy of chemical disinfectants?

Contact time and concentration of the disinfectant (Correct answer)
The brand name of the product
The temperature of the storage room
The color of the solution

Correct answer: Contact time and concentration of the disinfectant

Adequate contact time at the correct concentration is the most critical factor determining disinfectant effectiveness against pathogens.

Question 165: When the postoperative case is complete and the room is being cleaned, biohazardous waste such as blood-soaked sponges should be disposed in:

Standard black garbage bags to reduce disposal costs
Red biohazard bags designated for regulated medical waste (Correct answer)
Linen bags with soiled surgical drapes
Sharps containers along with needles and blades

Correct answer: Red biohazard bags designated for regulated medical waste

Blood-soaked sponges are regulated medical waste and must be disposed of in red biohazard bags per OSHA and EPA requirements.

Question 166: When removing surgical drapes postoperatively, the ST should roll them:

Inward (contaminated side in) to contain debris and fluids (Correct answer)
Outward quickly to speed up room turnover
Off the patient and directly into a trash can across the room
Onto the instrument table for reuse on the next case

Correct answer: Inward (contaminated side in) to contain debris and fluids

Drapes are rolled inward to contain blood, fluids, and debris and prevent spreading contamination to the OR environment.

Question 167: A surgeon performing a Whipple procedure (pancreaticoduodenectomy) will require which anastomosis to restore biliary drainage?

Choledochojejunostomy (hepaticojejunostomy) (Correct answer)
Gastrojejunostomy
Ileoileostomy
Pancreaticogastrostomy only

Correct answer: Choledochojejunostomy (hepaticojejunostomy)

A choledochojejunostomy (or hepaticojejunostomy) reconnects the bile duct to the jejunum to restore biliary drainage after removal of the duodenum.

Question 168: Which hemostatic technique uses high-frequency electrical current to coagulate bleeding vessels?

Electrosurgery (electrocautery) (Correct answer)
Ligation
Bone wax application
Compression with a sponge

Correct answer: Electrosurgery (electrocautery)

Electrosurgery uses high-frequency alternating current to generate heat that coagulates proteins in bleeding vessels, achieving hemostasis.

Question 169: Which suture needle type is used for suturing bowel or other delicate hollow viscera?

Reverse cutting needle
Cutting needle
Blunt needle
Taper (round) needle (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Taper (round) needle

Taper (round) needles penetrate tissue by separating fibers without cutting, reducing the risk of tearing fragile hollow organs.

Question 170: Which neuromuscular blocking agent has the fastest onset and shortest duration, making it ideal for rapid sequence intubation?

Vecuronium
Rocuronium
Succinylcholine (Correct answer)
Pancuronium

Correct answer: Succinylcholine

Succinylcholine has the fastest onset (approximately 60 seconds) and shortest duration (5-10 minutes), making it the classic choice for RSI.

Question 171: How does risk management apply to daily practice in Perioperative Patient Care for Certified Surgical Technician professionals?

Through proactive identification of potential hazards and implementation of preventive measures (Correct answer)
Through annual safety audits exclusively
By avoiding high-risk situations entirely
Only through responding to incidents after they occur

Correct answer: Through proactive identification of potential hazards and implementation of preventive measures

Effective risk management in Perioperative Patient Care requires proactive hazard identification and preventive measures, not just reactive responses. This approach reduces incidents, improves outcomes, and protects both professionals and clients.

Question 172: A patient is undergoing a prostatectomy. Which structure must the surgeon carefully avoid to preserve urinary continence?

Trigone of the bladder
Detrusor muscle
External urethral sphincter (Correct answer)
Internal urethral sphincter only

Correct answer: External urethral sphincter

The external urethral sphincter (rhabdosphincter) provides voluntary continence control and must be preserved during prostatectomy.

Question 173: Which muscle forms the floor of the femoral triangle and contains the iliopsoas groove?

Iliopsoas (Correct answer)
Pectineus
Vastus medialis
Adductor brevis

Correct answer: Iliopsoas

The iliopsoas muscle, along with the pectineus medially, forms the floor of the femoral triangle.

Question 174: The closed-glove technique differs from the open-glove technique in that:

The hands never extend beyond the gown cuffs during donning (Correct answer)
It is used only when changing gloves during a procedure
The gloves are donned before the gown in this technique
It requires an assistant to hold the glove open

Correct answer: The hands never extend beyond the gown cuffs during donning

In the closed-glove technique, hands remain inside the gown cuffs throughout donning, preventing bare hand contact with the sterile glove exterior.

Question 175: A serious complication specifically associated with prolonged lithotomy positioning is:

Facial pressure ulcers
Radial nerve palsy
Compartment syndrome of the lower extremities (Correct answer)
Brachial plexus stretch injury

Correct answer: Compartment syndrome of the lower extremities

Prolonged lithotomy position elevates the legs above heart level, reducing arterial perfusion pressure and increasing venous pressure, which can cause compartment syndrome.

Question 176: During a cesarean section, which layer is typically incised last before entering the uterus?

Subcutaneous tissue
Peritoneum (Correct answer)
Skin
Fascia (Scarpa's)

Correct answer: Peritoneum

The peritoneum is the final layer entered before the uterine incision is made during a cesarean section.

NBSTSA Certified Surgical Technologist (CST)

The Certified Surgical Technologist (CST) certification validates the knowledge and skills of surgical technologists in aseptic technique, patient care, and surgical procedures.

175

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150 min

Time Limit

70%

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