CPFM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CPFM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

110 questions
120 min time limit
70.00% to pass
  1. What does a positive net present value (NPV) on a project indicate? The project adds value and should be accepted
  2. An earn-out provision in an M&A deal is BEST described as: A contingent payment tied to the target's future performance
  3. A bond's coupon rate is 5% and the market yield is 7%. The bond will most likely trade at a: Discount
  4. During a health inspection of a food establishment, the following individuals are in charge of oversight: The person in charge
  5. An efficient portfolio on the efficient frontier offers: The highest expected return for a given level of risk
  6. Which of the following would most likely raise a firm's cost of debt? A downgrade in its credit rating
  7. The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model minimizes the sum of which two costs? Ordering cost and carrying cost
  8. Which technique eliminates the need for a company to convert one currency to another when settling intercompany transactions? Netting
  9. The minimum amount that must be maintained in a futures margin account is the: Maintenance margin
  10. Which financing decision affects a firm's long-term capital structure? Issuing long-term debt versus equity
  11. Which of the following best describes the role of an external auditor in corporate governance? Providing an independent opinion on whether financial statements are fairly presented
  12. In M&A valuation, a precedent transactions analysis establishes value by examining: Multiples paid in similar historical M&A deals
  13. Which ratio best measures the proportion of a company's capital that comes from creditors? Debt-to-total-capital ratio
  14. A fiduciary duty in financial management requires that an officer or director act in the best interest of whom? The shareholders and the organization they serve
  15. The Hart-Scott-Rodino (HSR) Act requires pre-merger notification to the government when a transaction exceeds certain thresholds in order to: Allow antitrust review before the deal closes
  16. Which of the following governance structures is most effective at reducing the risk of financial fraud at a publicly traded company? A majority of independent directors with a separate audit committee
  17. The primary purpose of an Investment Policy Statement (IPS) is to: Document objectives, constraints, and guidelines
  18. Which source of capital generally carries the lowest cost for a profitable firm due to tax deductibility? Debt
  19. A firm with volatile cash flows is setting a dividend policy as part of strategic planning. The most prudent approach is to: Adopt a conservative, sustainable payout
  20. A company holds receivables denominated in euros while reporting in U.S. dollars. What type of risk does this exposure primarily represent? Transaction (foreign exchange) risk
  21. The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) estimates the cost of equity as: Risk-free rate + beta × equity risk premium
  22. Which of the following is an example of a plain vanilla derivative? Standard interest rate swap
  23. An annuity differs from a perpetuity in that an annuity: Has a finite number of payments
  24. Credit risk is best defined as the risk that: A counterparty fails to meet its contractual obligations
  25. Which of the following is a leading indicator of future financial performance? Customer satisfaction scores
  26. Inflation that is higher than expected generally benefits: Borrowers with fixed-rate debt
  27. A sunk cost is best described as a cost that: Has already been incurred and cannot be changed
  28. Strategic financial planning should align with which overarching organizational element? The corporate vision and mission
  29. A dividend policy that pays a constant percentage of earnings each year is called a: Constant payout ratio policy
  30. Following a power outage lasting more than four hours in an establishment, the following must be discarded: Excessive animal products
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