CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) & Core 2 (220-1102) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A client requests access to the system registry file in order to read, search, or even alter it. What suggestions do you have?

msedit
regedit (Correct answer)
sysconfig
sysedit

Correct answer: regedit

`regedit` (Registry Editor) is the standard Windows utility that allows users to access, view, search, and modify the system registry. The Windows Registry is a hierarchical database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. While powerful, extreme caution is advised when using `regedit`, as incorrect modifications can lead to system instability.

Question 2: Which wireless security configuration is considered a best practice when deploying a guest network?

Open network with no SSID broadcast
WEP encryption with MAC filtering
Isolated VLAN with captive portal and client isolation enabled (Correct answer)
Same VLAN as corporate with WPA2-Personal

Correct answer: Isolated VLAN with captive portal and client isolation enabled

Guest networks should be isolated on a separate VLAN, use a captive portal for access control, and enable client isolation to prevent guest-to-guest attacks.

Question 3: Which of the following is an example of the 'something you are' authentication factor?

A Personal Identification Number (PIN)
A password
A security token
A fingerprint scan (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A fingerprint scan

Authentication factors are categorized as something you know (e.g., password), something you have (e.g., token), and something you are. 'Something you are' refers to biometric data, which includes unique physical characteristics like fingerprints, retinal patterns, or facial features.

Question 4: Which of the following represents the strongest password according to common security best practices?

123456789
P@ssw0rd!
Summer2026
MyP3t#isAwe$ome (Correct answer)

Correct answer: MyP3t#isAwe$ome

A strong password is long (typically 12+ characters), complex (using uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and symbols), and unpredictable. 'MyP3t#isAwe$ome' is the best option because it is long and uses all four character types, making it difficult to guess or crack.

Question 5: Which tool should a technician use to safely discharge static electricity before handling internal PC components?

Insulated screwdriver
Rubber gloves
Antistatic wrist strap connected to chassis ground (Correct answer)
Cotton gloves

Correct answer: Antistatic wrist strap connected to chassis ground

An antistatic wrist strap continuously drains static charge from the technician's body to ground, preventing ESD damage.

Question 6: An attacker sends millions of requests to a web server to make it unavailable. This is called a:

Denial of Service (DoS) attack (Correct answer)
Replay attack
Buffer overflow attack
Brute force attack

Correct answer: Denial of Service (DoS) attack

A DoS attack overwhelms a target system with traffic or requests, making it unavailable to legitimate users.

Question 7: A switch is configured with storm control. Which type of traffic does storm control mitigate?

Encrypted traffic
Tagged VLAN traffic
Unicast traffic only
Broadcast, multicast, and unknown unicast floods (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Broadcast, multicast, and unknown unicast floods

Storm control monitors broadcast, multicast, and unknown unicast traffic rates and blocks or throttles them when they exceed configured thresholds to prevent broadcast storms.

Question 8: Which network hardening practice reduces the risk of ARP poisoning on a LAN segment?

Using static routing only
Disabling IGMP snooping
Enabling OSPF authentication
Implementing Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) on switches (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Implementing Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) on switches

Dynamic ARP Inspection validates ARP packets against the DHCP snooping binding table and drops spoofed ARP replies.

Question 9: What type of topology connects all devices to a single central device, such as a switch?

Mesh
Ring
Star (Correct answer)
Bus

Correct answer: Star

In a star topology, all network devices connect to a single central device, such as a switch or hub. This central connection point relays data between all connected nodes. This design simplifies troubleshooting and makes network expansion easier, as a failure in one device does not affect the entire network.

Question 10: What is the purpose of an OID (Object Identifier) in SNMP?

Uniquely identifies a specific managed object in the MIB hierarchy (Correct answer)
Encrypts SNMP community strings
Sets the polling interval for device queries
Authenticates the NMS to the SNMP agent

Correct answer: Uniquely identifies a specific managed object in the MIB hierarchy

An OID is a unique numeric identifier in a hierarchical tree that maps to a specific manageable object within the MIB.

Question 11: A technician runs 'nslookup mail.company.com' and receives a different IP than expected. What should be checked next?

The switch MAC address table
The default gateway ARP entry
DNS server records and potential DNS poisoning (Correct answer)
DHCP lease duration

Correct answer: DNS server records and potential DNS poisoning

An unexpected DNS response could indicate stale DNS records or DNS cache poisoning that must be investigated on the DNS server.

Question 12: Which networking device connects multiple networks and forwards traffic based on IP addresses?

Hub
Switch
Router (Correct answer)
Repeater

Correct answer: Router

A router connects multiple networks and uses IP routing tables to forward packets toward their destination networks.

Question 13: A user reports that their computer displays a 'No Boot Device Found' error. What should the technician check FIRST?

Monitor cable connection
BIOS/UEFI boot order settings (Correct answer)
RAM seating
CPU thermal paste

Correct answer: BIOS/UEFI boot order settings

The most common cause of 'No Boot Device Found' is an incorrect boot order in BIOS/UEFI, where the system is trying to boot from a device (like a USB drive or optical disc) that doesn't contain an OS. Check BIOS boot order first before suspecting hard drive failure.

Question 14: What does VPN stand for, and what is its main use?

Virtual Private Network — creates an encrypted tunnel for secure remote access (Correct answer)
Virtual Protocol Network — manages network protocols
Variable Packet Node — routes variable-size packets
Verified Public Node — verifies devices on a public network

Correct answer: Virtual Private Network — creates an encrypted tunnel for secure remote access

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) creates an encrypted tunnel over a public network, allowing secure remote access as if the user were directly connected to the private network.

Question 15: A company wants to use a cloud deployment model that combines on-premises infrastructure with public cloud resources and allows data and applications to move between them. Which model best describes this?

Hybrid cloud (Correct answer)
Public cloud
Community cloud
Private cloud

Correct answer: Hybrid cloud

A hybrid cloud integrates on-premises (private) infrastructure with public cloud services, enabling workloads and data to move between environments.

Question 16: What type of certificate allows a single certificate to secure multiple hostnames listed in the Subject Alternative Name (SAN) field?

Root CA certificate
Self-signed certificate
Multi-domain (SAN) certificate (Correct answer)
Wildcard certificate

Correct answer: Multi-domain (SAN) certificate

A multi-domain or SAN certificate explicitly lists multiple FQDNs in the Subject Alternative Name extension, securing all listed hostnames under one certificate.

Question 17: Which protocol resolves fully qualified domain names to IP addresses?

NTP
DHCP
DNS (Correct answer)
WINS

Correct answer: DNS

DNS (Domain Name System) translates human-readable hostnames like www.example.com into IP addresses that routers can use.

Question 18: When installing DDR5 RAM in a dual-channel configuration, which slots should the modules occupy?

Any two slots regardless of position
Only slot 1 for single-channel, all four for dual-channel
Slots 1 and 2 (adjacent slots)
Slots 1 and 3 or 2 and 4 (matching color slots) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Slots 1 and 3 or 2 and 4 (matching color slots)

Dual-channel requires populating matching slots (usually same color, e.g., A1+B1 or A2+B2) as defined by the motherboard manual to activate dual-channel mode.

Question 19: A cloud computing service model that provides remote access to programs in exchange for a monthly or annual membership fee is known as:Correct answer: SaaS

SaaS (Correct answer)
DaaS
IaaS
PaaS

Correct answer: SaaS

Software as a Service (SaaS) is a cloud computing model where applications are hosted by a vendor and made available to customers over the internet. Users typically access these programs via a web browser or client application, paying a recurring subscription fee for the service. This eliminates the need for users to install, maintain, or update the software themselves.

Question 20: Which spanning tree port state actively forwards frames and learns MAC addresses?

Learning
Blocking
Listening
Forwarding (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Forwarding

The Forwarding state is the only STP state where a port both learns MAC addresses and forwards data frames.

Question 21: Which type of attack involves sending a flood of packets to overwhelm a target's resources?

Man-in-the-Middle (MITM)
Denial of Service (DoS) (Correct answer)
Phishing
SQL Injection

Correct answer: Denial of Service (DoS)

A Denial of Service (DoS) attack aims to make a network resource unavailable to its legitimate users by overwhelming it with a flood of traffic. The attacker sends an excessive number of requests or malformed packets, consuming the target's resources like bandwidth, CPU, or memory. This prevents the server or service from responding to legitimate requests, effectively shutting it down.

Question 22: What distinguishes a zero-day vulnerability from other security vulnerabilities?

It only affects web applications
No patch or fix is publicly available at the time of exploitation (Correct answer)
It targets only legacy operating systems
It requires physical access to exploit

Correct answer: No patch or fix is publicly available at the time of exploitation

A zero-day vulnerability is one that is exploited before the vendor has released a patch, giving defenders zero days to protect themselves.

Question 23: Which cable standard supplies both data and up to 100W of power delivery over a single reversible connector?

eSATA with PoweredUSB
Thunderbolt 2
USB Type-A 3.2
USB Type-C with USB Power Delivery (Correct answer)

Correct answer: USB Type-C with USB Power Delivery

USB Type-C with the USB Power Delivery specification can carry data at USB 3.2/4 speeds and deliver up to 100W (240W with EPR) through the same cable.

Question 24: Which BIOS feature, when enabled, allows the operating system to manage CPU power states and reduce power consumption at idle?

XMP/EXPO profile
EIST / SpeedStep / Cool'n'Quiet (Correct answer)
Secure Boot
CSM (Compatibility Support Module)

Correct answer: EIST / SpeedStep / Cool'n'Quiet

Intel EIST (SpeedStep) and AMD Cool'n'Quiet/CPB are CPU power management features that dynamically lower clock speed and voltage at idle to reduce power draw.

Question 25: An attacker gains unauthorized physical access to a secure area by following an authorized employee through a door. This is called:

Vishing
Tailgating (piggybacking) (Correct answer)
Shoulder surfing
Dumpster diving

Correct answer: Tailgating (piggybacking)

Tailgating (or piggybacking) involves an unauthorized person following an authorized individual through a secured physical access point.

Question 26: Which of the following is a packet-oriented mobile data standard on the worldwide system for mobile communications of the 2G and 3G cellular communication networks that offers moderate-speed data transfer?

GPS
TDMA
GSM
GPRS (Correct answer)

Correct answer: GPRS

GPRS (General Packet Radio Service) is a packet-oriented mobile data standard that evolved from 2G GSM networks, bridging the gap towards 3G. It enabled continuous data transfer over cellular networks, offering moderate speeds suitable for services like MMS and basic internet browsing. GPRS was a key technology for introducing always-on data connectivity to mobile devices.

Question 27: At which OSI layer do hubs operate?

Layer 1 — Physical (Correct answer)
Layer 3 — Network
Layer 2 — Data Link
Layer 4 — Transport

Correct answer: Layer 1 — Physical

Hubs are Layer 1 devices that simply repeat electrical signals to all ports with no intelligence about addressing.

Question 28: Which routing protocol divides networks into 'areas' to reduce routing overhead and improve scalability?

OSPF (Correct answer)
RIPv2
EIGRP
BGP

Correct answer: OSPF

OSPF uses a hierarchical area structure with Area 0 as the backbone, limiting LSA flooding and reducing the size of link-state databases in each area.

Question 29: In the context of software development, what is a "loop" used for?

To search for a specific value in a database
To end a program's execution
To store data temporarily in memory
To repeat a set of instructions multiple times (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To repeat a set of instructions multiple times

In programming, a 'loop' is a control flow statement that allows a block of code to be executed repeatedly based on a specified condition. This mechanism is fundamental for automating repetitive tasks, iterating through collections of data, and performing actions until a certain criterion is met. Loops are crucial for writing efficient and concise code.

Question 30: What does 'POST' stand for in the context of computer startup?

Power Output System Test
Power On Self Test (Correct answer)
Pre-Operating System Transfer
Primary Output Signal Test

Correct answer: Power On Self Test

POST stands for Power On Self Test, a diagnostic process the BIOS runs to verify hardware components are functioning before booting.

Question 31: A network administrator needs to centralize log messages from various multi-vendor network devices like routers, switches, and firewalls into a single server for analysis. The solution must use a standard, widely supported protocol for sending these event messages across the network. Which protocol is BEST suited for this purpose?

SNMP
Syslog (Correct answer)
NetFlow
ICMP

Correct answer: Syslog

Syslog is the industry standard protocol specifically designed for forwarding log and event messages from network devices to a central logging server. While SNMP can send 'traps' (notifications), its primary purpose is device management and monitoring of specific variables, not comprehensive logging. NetFlow is for collecting IP traffic metadata, and ICMP is for network diagnostics.

Question 32: Which of the following BEST describes multi-factor authentication (MFA)?

Having multiple user accounts
Requiring authentication from two or more different factor categories (Correct answer)
Using a long, complex password
Changing passwords frequently

Correct answer: Requiring authentication from two or more different factor categories

MFA requires two or more factors from different categories (something you know, have, or are) to verify identity.

Question 33: In Linux, which command changes the permissions of a file so the owner can read and write, while group and others can only read?

chmod 644 filename (Correct answer)
chmod 600 filename
chmod 777 filename
chmod 755 filename

Correct answer: chmod 644 filename

chmod 644 sets owner read+write (6), group read-only (4), and others read-only (4), which is the standard permission set for most files.

Question 34: How does the CompTIA body of knowledge relate to daily professional practice?

It is relevant only for academic research
It only applies during certification exams
It provides the foundational framework that guides decision-making and standard practices (Correct answer)
It is theoretical and has limited practical application

Correct answer: It provides the foundational framework that guides decision-making and standard practices

The body of knowledge provides the foundational framework of principles, standards, and best practices that professionals use to guide their daily decision-making, ensure consistent quality, and maintain alignment with industry standards.

Question 35: Which of the following is the physical, tangible component of a computer system, such as the monitor, keyboard, and internal circuit boards?

Application
Software
Hardware (Correct answer)
Operating System

Correct answer: Hardware

Hardware refers to the physical, tangible components of a computer system that you can see and touch. This includes input devices like keyboards, output devices like monitors, and internal components like the CPU and motherboard. Software, applications, and operating systems are all intangible sets of instructions.

Question 36: What type of account do you need to link your mobile device to Workspace (previously G Suite)?

Yahoo account
Google account (Correct answer)
iCIoud account
Office 365 account

Correct answer: Google account

Workspace (formerly G Suite) is a suite of cloud-based productivity and collaboration tools developed by Google, including services like Gmail, Google Drive, and Google Docs. To link a mobile device and synchronize these services, a Google account is required. This account serves as the central credential for accessing and managing all Google Workspace applications.

Question 37: A technician needs to confirm that two network devices support the same PoE standard before connecting them. Which tool should be used?

PoE tester (Correct answer)
Multimeter
OTDR
Cable tester

Correct answer: PoE tester

A PoE tester verifies the power class, voltage, and wattage delivered on a cable to confirm compatibility between PoE-capable switch ports and powered devices.

Question 38: A small business owner is currently storing all customer and order information in a single spreadsheet. An IT consultant recommends moving to a relational database to reduce data redundancy and improve integrity. What is the primary advantage of a relational database over this flat file approach?

It uses multiple, linked tables to separate different types of data, such as customers and orders. (Correct answer)
It is less secure and easier for any user to modify.
It does not require a predefined structure for the data.
It stores all data in a single, unstructured file for faster access.

Correct answer: It uses multiple, linked tables to separate different types of data, such as customers and orders.

The core principle of a relational database is organizing data into multiple tables that are related to each other. [3, 30] For example, one table for customer information and another for order information. This is a significant advantage over a flat file (like a spreadsheet) where all data is in one place, often leading to repetition and inconsistencies. [19]

Question 39: A Windows computer fails to boot and displays 'BOOTMGR is missing.' What is the best first step to resolve this?

Boot from installation media and use Startup Repair (Correct answer)
Reinstall Windows from scratch
Run chkdsk from within Windows
Replace the hard drive

Correct answer: Boot from installation media and use Startup Repair

Booting from Windows installation media and running Startup Repair can rebuild the boot manager without requiring a full reinstall.

Question 40: What is the primary function of data encryption?

To prevent hardware failures and data loss.
To make data unreadable to unauthorized individuals. (Correct answer)
To verify the identity of a system user.
To guarantee data is always accessible to authorized users.

Correct answer: To make data unreadable to unauthorized individuals.

Encryption is the process of converting readable data (plaintext) into an unreadable format (ciphertext) using a code or key. Its main purpose is to protect the confidentiality of data by ensuring that only authorized parties with the correct key can decrypt and read it.

Question 41: A network administrator is configuring a trunk link between two switches. The administrator wants to specify a VLAN that will handle all untagged traffic. What is this type of VLAN called?

Native VLAN (Correct answer)
Tagged VLAN
Default VLAN
Management VLAN

Correct answer: Native VLAN

The Native VLAN is the VLAN to which a trunk port assigns untagged traffic. [3, 7, 12] By default, this is often VLAN 1, but for security reasons, it's best practice to change it. [12, 16] While a management VLAN is used for device administration and the default VLAN is the initial VLAN for all ports, the specific function of carrying untagged traffic on a trunk belongs to the Native VLAN. [16]

Question 42: What happens when a CPU's thermal paste dries out or is improperly applied?

The CPU overheats due to poor heat transfer to the cooler (Correct answer)
The CPU runs at higher clock speeds
RAM compatibility errors occur
The system fails to recognize the CPU

Correct answer: The CPU overheats due to poor heat transfer to the cooler

Thermal paste fills microscopic gaps between the CPU and heatsink; when it dries or is missing, heat transfer degrades and the CPU overheats.

Question 43: Which OSI layer is responsible for converting bits into signals suitable for the transmission medium (electrical, optical, or radio)?

Physical layer (Correct answer)
Network layer
Transport layer
Data Link layer

Correct answer: Physical layer

The Physical layer (Layer 1) converts binary data into signals appropriate for the transmission medium, whether copper, fiber, or wireless.

Question 44: A user reports that Windows takes a very long time to boot. Which tool should a technician use to identify startup programs that are slowing down boot time?

Event Viewer
Task Manager Startup tab (Correct answer)
System Configuration (msconfig)
Device Manager

Correct answer: Task Manager Startup tab

The Startup tab in Task Manager shows which programs launch at startup and their startup impact, making it the most direct tool for diagnosing slow boot times.

Question 45: Which of the algorithms below is a symmetric-key algorithm?

DSA
PGP/GPG
DES (Correct answer)
RSA

Correct answer: DES

DES (Data Encryption Standard) is a classic example of a symmetric-key algorithm, meaning it uses the same key for both encryption and decryption. In contrast, RSA, DSA, and PGP/GPG (which uses a hybrid approach but relies on asymmetric keys for key exchange) are primarily associated with asymmetric (public-key) cryptography, where separate keys are used for encryption and decryption.

Question 46: A macOS user wants to reinstall the operating system without erasing their data. Which macOS recovery option best accomplishes this?

Time Machine restore
Erase and reinstall from macOS Recovery
Internet Recovery with full erase
Reinstall macOS from Recovery Mode (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reinstall macOS from Recovery Mode

Reinstalling macOS from Recovery Mode overlays the OS over the existing installation, preserving user data and applications while repairing system files.

Question 47: A small business owner wants to set up a guest Wi-Fi network. They are using older access points that do not support WPA2 or WPA3. The only available security options are WEP and WPA with TKIP. Which of the following is the MOST secure option available in this scenario?

Open network with MAC filtering
WEP with a 128-bit key
WEP with a 64-bit key
WPA with TKIP (Correct answer)

Correct answer: WPA with TKIP

While both are now considered insecure, WPA with TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is significantly more secure than WEP. WPA was designed as an interim replacement for WEP and fixed several of its critical flaws, such as implementing a message integrity check and dynamically changing keys. WEP is fundamentally broken and easily cracked, regardless of key length.

Question 48: What is the primary purpose of a DMZ (demilitarized zone) in network security?

To store encrypted backups
To host public-facing services while isolating the internal network (Correct answer)
To block all external traffic
To monitor internal user activity

Correct answer: To host public-facing services while isolating the internal network

A DMZ is a network segment that hosts public-facing servers (e.g., web, email) while keeping the internal corporate network protected.

Question 49: A technician is adding a PCIe x16 GPU to a system but only a PCIe x8 physical slot with x8 electrical lanes is available. What is the result?

The GPU will function but at reduced bandwidth compared to x16 (Correct answer)
The GPU will not function at all due to lane mismatch
The motherboard will be permanently damaged
The GPU will automatically negotiate to x16 performance

Correct answer: The GPU will function but at reduced bandwidth compared to x16

PCIe is backward compatible; a x16 card in an x8 slot will operate at x8 bandwidth, which may slightly limit performance but allows the GPU to function.

Question 50: What is the function of the pagefile.sys file in Windows?

Holds temporary internet files
Caches Windows Update downloads
Stores system restore points
Acts as virtual memory by storing data swapped out of RAM (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Acts as virtual memory by storing data swapped out of RAM

Pagefile.sys is Windows' paging file that stores memory pages swapped out of physical RAM, effectively extending available memory to the system.

Question 51: Which switching feature prevents a port from forwarding frames until it has verified the port is loop-free?

Spanning Tree Protocol (Correct answer)
Port security
Storm control
BPDU guard

Correct answer: Spanning Tree Protocol

STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) places ports through listening and learning states before transitioning to forwarding, ensuring a loop-free topology.

Question 52: Which is the online/cloud storage account that comes with your Microsoft account?

Readyboost
Rooting
OneDrive (Correct answer)
Biometrics

Correct answer: OneDrive

OneDrive is Microsoft's cloud storage service that comes integrated with a Microsoft account. It allows users to store files and photos online, synchronize them across multiple devices, and share them with others. OneDrive provides a convenient way to back up data and access it from anywhere with an internet connection.

Question 53: Which Windows feature allows an administrator to run a command prompt with elevated privileges?

Run as administrator (Correct answer)
Task Scheduler
Windows Defender
User Account Control prompt

Correct answer: Run as administrator

Right-clicking and selecting 'Run as administrator' launches the application with elevated (administrator-level) privileges.

Question 54: Which RAID level provides disk striping with parity, requiring a minimum of 3 drives and tolerating one drive failure?

RAID 10
RAID 1
RAID 5 (Correct answer)
RAID 0

Correct answer: RAID 5

RAID 5 uses block-level striping with distributed parity across a minimum of 3 disks, allowing recovery from a single disk failure.

Question 55: Which statement correctly describes the difference between a router and a Layer 3 switch?

Layer 3 switches route traffic between VLANs at hardware speeds; routers are better suited for WAN connectivity and advanced features like NAT (Correct answer)
Routers support VLANs; Layer 3 switches do not
Layer 3 switches operate at OSI Layer 2 only; routers operate at Layer 3
Routers use MAC tables; Layer 3 switches use routing tables

Correct answer: Layer 3 switches route traffic between VLANs at hardware speeds; routers are better suited for WAN connectivity and advanced features like NAT

Layer 3 switches perform inter-VLAN routing in hardware (ASICs) at high speed, while traditional routers excel at WAN interfaces, NAT, and complex routing policies.

Question 56: A technician sees the SSID 'CorpWifi' broadcasting on channel 36 with a 40 MHz channel width. What frequency band is this network using?

2.4 GHz
60 GHz
5 GHz (Correct answer)
6 GHz

Correct answer: 5 GHz

Channel 36 is in the 5 GHz UNII-1 band (5.180 GHz); channels in the 2.4 GHz band are numbered 1-14.

Question 57: What is the maximum number of active links supported in an 802.3ad LACP EtherChannel bundle?

8 (Correct answer)
32
4
16

Correct answer: 8

IEEE 802.3ad LACP supports up to 8 active links in a bundle, with up to 8 additional standby links ready to take over if an active link fails.

Question 58: A technician needs to find which process is using a specific TCP port on a Windows machine. Which command is most helpful?

ipconfig /all
netstat -ano (Correct answer)
nslookup
tracert

Correct answer: netstat -ano

The 'netstat -ano' command lists active TCP/UDP connections with the local port, remote address, state, and the PID of the owning process.

Question 59: A network admin wants to ensure that only specific devices can connect to the wireless network based on hardware addresses. Which control is being used?

SSID cloaking
WEP encryption
TKIP
MAC address filtering (Correct answer)

Correct answer: MAC address filtering

MAC address filtering allows or denies wireless association based on a device's hardware (MAC) address.

Question 60: Which cloud characteristic allows resources to be provisioned and released automatically based on demand without human intervention?

Rapid elasticity (Correct answer)
Resource pooling
Measured service
Broad network access

Correct answer: Rapid elasticity

Rapid elasticity allows cloud resources to scale up or down automatically and quickly in response to demand, often appearing unlimited to the consumer.

Question 61: Which cloud concept refers to the ability to access cloud services over the network using standard mechanisms from any device such as laptops, tablets, and smartphones?

Broad network access (Correct answer)
Resource pooling
On-demand self-service
Rapid elasticity

Correct answer: Broad network access

Broad network access means capabilities are available over the network and accessed through standard mechanisms that promote use by heterogeneous thin or thick client platforms.

Question 62: A technician needs to use a bootable USB drive to start a computer. They want to do so by changing the computer's boot sequence. To modify the boot order, where can this technician go?

Services
BIOS (Correct answer)
Task Manager
Registry

Correct answer: BIOS

The BIOS (Basic Input/Output System) or UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) is firmware that initializes hardware during the booting process and provides runtime services for the operating system. To change the boot sequence, a technician must access the BIOS/UEFI setup utility, typically by pressing a specific key (like F2, Del, F10) during startup. Within this utility, they can prioritize booting from a USB drive, CD/DVD, or hard drive.

Question 63: In object-oriented programming, what is the concept of bundling data (attributes) and the methods (functions) that operate on that data into a single unit or 'object'?

Polymorphism
Abstraction
Inheritance
Encapsulation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Encapsulation

Encapsulation is a fundamental concept in object-oriented programming (OOP). It refers to the bundling of data with the methods that operate on that data, and restricting direct access to some of an object's components.

Question 64: Disappearing files may indicate ____ .

faulty hardware
hijacked email
network connectivity issues
malware (Correct answer)

Correct answer: malware

Disappearing files are a strong indicator of malware activity. Certain types of malware, such as ransomware, wipers, or even some viruses, can encrypt, delete, or hide files on a system as part of their malicious payload, leading to the user perceiving them as 'disappearing'.

Question 65: Which Wi-Fi generation introduced Target Wake Time (TWT) to improve battery life for IoT devices?

Wi-Fi 6E (802.11ax extended)
Wi-Fi 5 (802.11ac)
Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax) (Correct answer)
Wi-Fi 4 (802.11n)

Correct answer: Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax)

Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax) introduced Target Wake Time, allowing devices to schedule when they wake to send/receive data, significantly improving IoT device battery life.

Question 66: A company wants to ensure its critical sales data has not been altered or tampered with, either accidentally or maliciously. Which principle of the CIA triad is PRIMARILY concerned with the accuracy and trustworthiness of data?

Confidentiality
Authorization
Integrity (Correct answer)
Availability

Correct answer: Integrity

Integrity is the principle of the CIA triad that ensures data is accurate, consistent, and has not been subject to unauthorized modification. Confidentiality is about preventing unauthorized disclosure, and Availability is about ensuring access for authorized users.

Question 67: What is the purpose of a VPN (Virtual Private Network)?

Speed up internet connections
Manage user passwords
Block malicious websites
Create an encrypted tunnel for secure communication over public networks (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Create an encrypted tunnel for secure communication over public networks

A VPN encrypts network traffic and routes it through a secure tunnel, protecting data sent over untrusted networks like the internet.

Question 68: A technician notices that CPU utilization on a core router spikes to 95% every day at 2:00 AM. What is the most likely cause?

SNMP trap storm
Scheduled backup or routing table update (Correct answer)
Syslog server misconfiguration
DDoS attack

Correct answer: Scheduled backup or routing table update

Scheduled tasks like backups, software updates, or routing protocol reconvergence commonly cause predictable CPU spikes at specific times.

Question 69: What can you do if a program is not responding to any commands and appears to be locked up?

HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
open Task Manager, select the task that has stopped responding, and click End Task (Correct answer)
using the RUN command and typing the name of the program
open Task Manager, select the task that has stopped responding, and click End Task

Correct answer: open Task Manager, select the task that has stopped responding, and click End Task

If a program is unresponsive and locked up, the most effective way to terminate it in Windows is to use the Task Manager. By opening Task Manager, selecting the frozen application under the 'Processes' or 'Applications' tab, and clicking 'End Task,' you can force the program to close.

Question 70: Which of the following is an example of a WAN (Wide Area Network)?

Devices on the same Wi-Fi network at home
Two computers connected via Bluetooth
The internet (Correct answer)
Computers connected in a single office building

Correct answer: The internet

The internet is the largest example of a WAN, connecting networks across vast geographic distances worldwide.

Question 71: Which editions of Windows 7 can create a HomeGroup? (choose four)

Windows 7 enterprise and ultimate
Windows 12 Home Premium, Professional, Enterprise, Ultimate
Windows 14 Home Premium, Professional, Enterprise, Ultimate
Windows 7 Home Premium, Professional, Enterprise, Ultimate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Windows 7 Home Premium, Professional, Enterprise, Ultimate

In Windows 7, the HomeGroup feature, which simplifies file and printer sharing among networked computers, was available in the Home Premium, Professional, Enterprise, and Ultimate editions. The Starter and Home Basic editions of Windows 7 did not support creating a HomeGroup.

Question 72: Which macOS utility provides a graphical view of running processes and system resource usage similar to Windows Task Manager?

Console
Terminal
Disk Utility
Activity Monitor (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Activity Monitor

Activity Monitor on macOS displays CPU, memory, energy, disk, and network usage for all running processes in real time.

Question 73: Which type of network spans a metropolitan area and typically connects multiple LANs across a city?

PAN
MAN (Correct answer)
WAN
LAN

Correct answer: MAN

A MAN (Metropolitan Area Network) covers a geographic area like a city and is larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN.

Question 74: A company policy requires employees to create strong passwords for all their accounts. Which of the following passwords BEST adheres to the principles of creating a strong password?

BlueCar!Sun98Flower? (Correct answer)
Tr@vel2Fr@nce
Jsmith2026!
Password123

Correct answer: BlueCar!Sun98Flower?

A strong password should be long (12-16 characters or more is recommended), use a mix of uppercase letters, lowercase letters, numbers, and symbols, and avoid easily guessable information or common words. 'BlueCar!Sun98Flower?' is the longest, most complex, and most random of the choices.

Question 75: What is the example of a teletypewriter terminal?

Storage devices
Input devices
Input/output devices (Correct answer)
Output devices

Correct answer: Input/output devices

A teletypewriter terminal, often abbreviated as TTY, is a device equipped with a keyboard for entering text and a printer or screen for displaying output. This dual functionality means it can both receive input from a user and provide output back to the user. Therefore, it is classified as an input/output (I/O) device.

Question 76: To view logs on an iOS device, which of these programs is needed?

iOSView
Logcat
Xcode (Correct answer)
iOSLog

Correct answer: Xcode

Xcode is Apple's integrated development environment (IDE) for macOS, used for developing software for Apple platforms including iOS. It includes various tools for debugging and monitoring iOS devices, allowing developers and technicians to view device logs for troubleshooting and analysis.

Question 77: A user reports that their computer loses all its work whenever the power goes out, even for a moment. The data they were actively working on was stored in which type of memory?

HDD
SSD
RAM (Correct answer)
ROM

Correct answer: RAM

Random Access Memory (RAM) is volatile memory, meaning it requires power to maintain the data stored within it. When power is lost, the contents of RAM are erased. ROM, SSDs, and HDDs are all non-volatile storage, meaning they retain data even when the power is turned off.

Question 78: Which protocol operates at Layer 4 and provides connection-oriented, reliable data delivery?

TCP (Correct answer)
ARP
UDP
ICMP

Correct answer: TCP

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) establishes a connection via a three-way handshake and guarantees reliable, ordered delivery.

Question 79: A user calls the hotline to ask where he might see his Linux system's error logs. On a Linux system, what is the most common location for these files?

/var/log (Correct answer)
/usr/error
/root/usr/error
/home/log

Correct answer: /var/log

On Linux and Unix-like systems, the `/var/log` directory is the standard location for system log files. This directory contains various logs, including system messages, kernel logs, application logs, and error logs, which are crucial for troubleshooting and monitoring system health. Administrators frequently check these files to diagnose issues and understand system events.

Question 80: A Windows application crashes with an error immediately after launching. What is the FIRST troubleshooting step?

Check Event Viewer logs for the specific error code and faulting module (Correct answer)
Immediately reinstall the application
Restart the computer and try again without investigation
Uninstall all recently installed programs

Correct answer: Check Event Viewer logs for the specific error code and faulting module

Checking Event Viewer (System and Application logs) should be the first step — it logs application crashes with error codes, faulting modules, and exception codes that identify the root cause. This is more efficient than reinstalling the application without understanding why it crashed.

Question 81: What protocol is used to automatically assign IP addresses to devices on a network?

DHCP (Correct answer)
DNS
ICMP
ARP

Correct answer: DHCP

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) automatically assigns IP addresses, subnet masks, default gateways, and DNS server addresses to network devices. Without DHCP, each device would need to be manually configured with a static IP address. DHCP uses UDP ports 67 (server) and 68 (client).

Question 82: Which Internet connection type is limited to a area near the central office and can rely on existing wiring infrastructure?

cable
fiber
satellite
DSL (Correct answer)

Correct answer: DSL

DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) provides Internet access over standard telephone lines, leveraging existing copper wiring infrastructure. Its performance and availability are highly dependent on the distance from the user's location to the telephone company's central office (CO). The further away, the weaker the signal and slower the speeds, making it limited to areas near the CO.

Question 83: Which power supply specification describes its efficiency at converting AC input to DC output?

Rail amperage
80 Plus certification (Correct answer)
Form factor
Wattage rating

Correct answer: 80 Plus certification

80 Plus certification levels (Bronze, Silver, Gold, Platinum, Titanium) indicate the PSU's AC-to-DC conversion efficiency at various load levels.

Question 84: A switch uses a MAC address table to forward frames. At which OSI layer does a switch primarily operate?

Layer 4
Layer 3
Layer 2 (Correct answer)
Layer 1

Correct answer: Layer 2

Traditional switches operate at Layer 2 (Data Link layer) and use MAC address tables to make forwarding decisions.

Question 85: What is the purpose of virtual memory in an operating system?

To increase CPU clock speed
To improve GPU performance
To partition the hard drive
To extend usable RAM by using disk space (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To extend usable RAM by using disk space

Virtual memory uses a portion of hard disk space (pagefile/swap) to extend the effective amount of RAM available to the system.

Question 86: An application developer is building a network program and needs to ensure data is delivered reliably with error checking. Which Transport layer protocol should they use?

UDP
ARP
ICMP
TCP (Correct answer)

Correct answer: TCP

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) provides reliable, connection-oriented delivery with error checking and acknowledgments.

Question 87: A user opens a file with a .pdf extension. Which of the following BEST describes this file type?

An editable word processing document
A portable document format for consistent cross-platform viewing (Correct answer)
An executable program file
A compressed archive containing multiple files

Correct answer: A portable document format for consistent cross-platform viewing

PDF (Portable Document Format) preserves document formatting consistently across different devices and operating systems.

Question 88: A user reports that their web browser redirects to unexpected websites and shows pop-up ads. What type of infection is most likely?

Ransomware
Rootkit
Adware or browser hijacker (PUP/malware) (Correct answer)
Logic bomb

Correct answer: Adware or browser hijacker (PUP/malware)

Browser redirects and unwanted pop-up ads are classic symptoms of adware or a browser hijacker — a type of potentially unwanted program (PUP) or malware that modifies browser settings, homepage, and search engine. Removal involves scanning with anti-malware tools, checking browser extensions, and resetting browser settings.

Question 89: Which of the following cannot be utilized on an Apple device, allows you to increase the storage capacity of your cell phone?

USB card
SSD
Special Memory Unit (SMU)
microSD card (Correct answer)

Correct answer: microSD card

MicroSD cards are small, removable flash memory cards widely used to expand the storage capacity of many mobile devices, particularly Android smartphones and tablets. However, Apple's mobile devices, such as iPhones and iPads, do not feature microSD card slots, meaning their internal storage cannot be expanded using this method. This makes microSD cards a common storage expansion option that is specifically unavailable for Apple devices.

Question 90: A user's laptop shows 'No Boot Device Found.' What is the most likely cause?

The hard drive has failed or is not detected (Correct answer)
The monitor cable is loose
The Wi-Fi adapter is disabled
The RAM is faulty

Correct answer: The hard drive has failed or is not detected

A 'No Boot Device Found' error typically indicates the hard drive has failed or the BIOS cannot detect a bootable storage device.

Question 91: A technician needs to restore a Windows system to a previous working state without losing user files. Which feature should be used?

System Restore (Correct answer)
System Image Recovery
Startup Repair
Reset this PC

Correct answer: System Restore

System Restore rolls back system files, registry settings, and installed programs to a previous restore point without affecting user data files.

Question 92: Although a user has successfully set up dual displays on his computer, the mouse does not track correctly from one screen to the next. Describe the procedure for resolving this problem.

The monitors must be realigned in Display Settings. (Correct answer)
A dual screen capable mouse must be installed.
In Device Manager, the monitor must be set to dual screen setting.
Screen personalization must be reset.

Correct answer: The monitors must be realigned in Display Settings.

When using multiple monitors, the operating system needs to know their physical arrangement to correctly track mouse movement between screens. If the mouse doesn't transition smoothly, it indicates that the virtual alignment in the display settings (e.g., Windows Display Settings) does not match the actual physical setup of the monitors. Adjusting the monitor positions within these settings will resolve the issue, allowing for seamless mouse navigation.

Question 93: Which Linux filesystem type is commonly used as the default for most modern Linux distributions?

HFS+
NTFS
FAT32
ext4 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ext4

ext4 is the fourth extended filesystem and is the default filesystem for most mainstream Linux distributions due to its journaling, performance, and reliability.

Question 94: What is the Windows Registry?

A list of installed Windows updates
A hierarchical database that stores OS and application configuration settings (Correct answer)
A backup of system files
A log file that records application errors

Correct answer: A hierarchical database that stores OS and application configuration settings

The Windows Registry is a hierarchical database that stores configuration settings for the operating system, hardware, and installed applications.

Question 95: What does 'virtualization' allow a single physical computer to do?

Run multiple operating systems simultaneously as virtual machines (Correct answer)
Connect to multiple networks at once
Share its display with multiple monitors
Increase RAM speed through software

Correct answer: Run multiple operating systems simultaneously as virtual machines

Virtualization allows one physical computer to run multiple operating systems simultaneously by creating isolated virtual machines managed by a hypervisor.

Question 96: What is the purpose of 'RAM' in a computer system?

To manage network communications
To permanently store the operating system and files
To power all internal components
To temporarily hold data and instructions the CPU is actively using (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To temporarily hold data and instructions the CPU is actively using

RAM (Random Access Memory) is volatile temporary storage that holds data and programs currently being used by the CPU.

Question 97: Which 802.11 amendment introduced mechanisms for radio resource management, enabling clients to request neighbor AP reports to assist with roaming decisions?

802.11r
802.11k (Correct answer)
802.11v
802.11w

Correct answer: 802.11k

802.11k provides Radio Resource Management, allowing clients to request neighbor reports from APs to make informed roaming decisions.

Question 98: Which is an online site, requiring Windows 8 or higher, where you can download apps, games, software, and more?

Boot Camp
Task Manager
Google App Store
Windows Store (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Windows Store

The Windows Store is Microsoft's official digital distribution platform for apps, games, and other software for Windows devices. It was introduced with Windows 8 and continues to be the primary marketplace for downloading applications on Windows 8 and higher operating systems.

Question 99: It takes an extremely long time for a user's computer to boot up. What can be done to help resolve the issue?

Update networking drivers.
Disable unnecessary programs from startup. (Correct answer)
Disable Windows updates.
Replace the network cable.

Correct answer: Disable unnecessary programs from startup.

A common cause of slow computer boot-up times is an excessive number of programs configured to launch automatically at startup. Disabling unnecessary programs from the startup sequence reduces the workload on the system during boot, allowing it to start up much faster.

Question 100: Which cloud computing concept ensures that cloud resources are shared among multiple customers while keeping each customer's data logically separated?

Geo-redundancy
Elasticity
Multi-tenancy (Correct answer)
High availability

Correct answer: Multi-tenancy

Multi-tenancy allows multiple customers (tenants) to share the same physical infrastructure while their data and applications remain logically isolated from one another.

Question 101: Which connector type is used to attach a SATA SSD to a motherboard for both power and data?

PCIe x4 slot with a separate Molex power connector
A single M.2 slot handles both power and data
Separate 7-pin data and 15-pin power connectors (Correct answer)
A single 15-pin SATA power connector handles both

Correct answer: Separate 7-pin data and 15-pin power connectors

SATA SSDs use a 7-pin data connector and a separate 15-pin power connector, both of which must be connected.

Question 102: Which of the following network locations disables network discovery in Windows Vista?

public (Correct answer)
libraries
private
static

Correct answer: public

In Windows Vista (and later versions), the 'Public' network location profile is designed for untrusted networks, such as those in coffee shops or airports. When set to 'Public,' network discovery is automatically disabled, and the firewall applies the most restrictive settings to protect the computer from potential threats on the network.

Question 103: What component contributes to the separation of network traffic across virtual machines on the same physical host?

NIDS
Virtual NIC (Correct answer)
TPM
Resource Pool

Correct answer: Virtual NIC

A Virtual NIC (Network Interface Card) is a software-based network adapter assigned to each virtual machine. It allows the VM to connect to a virtual switch, which then handles the routing and separation of network traffic between different VMs on the same physical host. This ensures that each virtual machine has its own distinct network identity and can communicate independently without interfering with others.

Question 104: A user wants to connect multiple peripherals to their laptop, including an external monitor, a keyboard, a mouse, and a wired network connection, using a single cable. Which of the following devices is designed for this purpose?

Docking station (Correct answer)
USB hub
Network switch
KVM switch

Correct answer: Docking station

A docking station is a device that allows a laptop to connect to multiple peripherals like monitors, keyboards, mice, and networks with a single connection. A USB hub only expands the number of USB ports. A KVM switch allows control of multiple computers with one set of keyboard, video, and mouse. A network switch is only for connecting devices to a network.

Question 105: Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) metric describes the percentage of time a cloud service is operational and accessible?

RPO
Uptime/Availability percentage (Correct answer)
RTO
MTBF

Correct answer: Uptime/Availability percentage

Cloud SLAs define availability as the percentage of time the service is operational, commonly expressed as '99.9% uptime,' meaning no more than ~8.76 hours of downtime per year.

Question 106: A user is prompted to allow an app permission to access their contacts, camera, and location. What security principle should guide their decision?

Permissions have no impact on security
Deny all permissions to maximize security at all times
Grant only the permissions the app genuinely needs to function (Correct answer)
Always grant all permissions so the app works correctly

Correct answer: Grant only the permissions the app genuinely needs to function

Applying least privilege to app permissions means only granting access that is necessary for the app's intended purpose.

Question 107: A laptop's built-in keyboard stops working after a liquid spill, but an external USB keyboard works fine. What is the most cost-effective repair?

Reinstall the operating system
Update the keyboard firmware
Replace the entire motherboard
Replace the laptop keyboard ribbon cable or keyboard assembly (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Replace the laptop keyboard ribbon cable or keyboard assembly

Liquid damage typically affects only the keyboard assembly; replacing the keyboard or its ribbon cable restores functionality without a costly motherboard swap.

Question 108: A company uses multiple public cloud providers simultaneously to avoid vendor lock-in and optimize performance. What strategy is this?

Community cloud
Hybrid cloud
Multicloud (Correct answer)
Cloud bursting

Correct answer: Multicloud

A multicloud strategy involves using services from two or more public cloud providers to leverage best-of-breed features and avoid dependency on any single provider.

Question 109: A help desk technician receives a call from a user who cannot access `www.comptia.org` by its domain name but can access it by its IP address. This indicates a likely problem with DNS resolution. Which command-line tool would be most effective for diagnosing this specific issue?

nslookup (Correct answer)
ping
route print
netstat

Correct answer: nslookup

`nslookup` (or `dig`) is a command-line tool specifically designed to query the Domain Name System (DNS) to obtain domain name or IP address mapping information. Since the user can reach the site by IP, connectivity is confirmed, but name resolution is failing. `nslookup` can be used to query the configured DNS server and see why it is failing to resolve the hostname.

Question 110: What is the name of Apple's cloud-based email service?

Gmail
Yahoo! Mail
iCloud Mail (Correct answer)
Exchange Online

Correct answer: iCloud Mail

iCloud Mail is Apple's proprietary cloud-based email service, seamlessly integrated into its iCloud ecosystem. It provides users with an email address (e.g., @icloud.com) and enables them to send, receive, and manage emails across all their Apple devices and through a web browser. It is a core component of Apple's suite of online services.

Question 111: Which of the following file attributes are available to files on a FAT32 partition?

active partition
system tray
disk degragmenter
hidden read only, archive, system (Correct answer)

Correct answer: hidden read only, archive, system

FAT32 (File Allocation Table 32-bit) is an older file system that supports a basic set of file attributes. These attributes include "Hidden" (makes the file invisible in normal directory listings), "Read-only" (prevents modification or deletion), "Archive" (indicates the file has been modified since the last backup), and "System" (marks the file as a critical system file). These attributes help manage file visibility and protection.

Question 112: Which of the following is an example of access control based on a user's job function?

Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) (Correct answer)
Rule-Based Access Control

Correct answer: Role-Based Access Control (RBAC)

RBAC assigns permissions based on job roles, so all users in the same role receive the same access rights.

Question 113: Which approach is recommended for troubleshooting operating systems issues?

Replace all components simultaneously
Wait for the problem to resolve itself
Use systematic isolation and testing methods (Correct answer)
Rely solely on past experience

Correct answer: Use systematic isolation and testing methods

Systematic isolation and testing methodically narrows down the root cause, making troubleshooting efficient and accurate.

Question 114: A business is evaluating cloud providers and wants to ensure workloads can be moved between providers without significant rework. What term describes this ability?

High availability
Vendor lock-in avoidance / portability (Correct answer)
Elasticity
Cloud bursting

Correct answer: Vendor lock-in avoidance / portability

Cloud portability refers to the ability to move applications and data between different cloud providers with minimal effort, reducing dependency on a single vendor.

Question 115: Which Linux command displays all currently running processes with details such as PID, CPU, and memory usage?

top -b -n1
netstat -an
ps aux (Correct answer)
ls -la

Correct answer: ps aux

The 'ps aux' command lists all running processes for all users along with their PID, CPU%, memory%, and command details.

Question 116: What is the primary purpose of a firewall?

To encrypt data stored on disk
To speed up network traffic
To assign IP addresses to devices
To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on rules (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic based on rules

A firewall filters network traffic using predefined rules to block unauthorized access while allowing legitimate traffic.

Question 117: A firewall is configured to inspect return traffic for sessions initiated from the inside network. Which firewall capability enables this?

NAT overload (PAT)
Stateful inspection tracking session state (Correct answer)
Application-layer proxy for HTTP only
Packet filtering using static ACLs

Correct answer: Stateful inspection tracking session state

Stateful inspection maintains a session table so return traffic matching established outbound sessions is automatically permitted without explicit inbound rules.

Question 118: Which statement BEST describes the relationship between CompTIA Computing Technology Industry Association certification requirements and industry evolution?

Requirements evolve periodically to reflect advances in knowledge, technology, and practice standards (Correct answer)
Certification requirements never change once established
Changes only occur when government mandates new requirements
Requirements become less stringent over time

Correct answer: Requirements evolve periodically to reflect advances in knowledge, technology, and practice standards

Certification requirements evolve to keep pace with advances in professional knowledge, technological developments, and changes in practice standards. This ensures that certified professionals remain current and competent in a changing professional landscape.

Question 119: Which of the following statements about NVMe is correct?

The M.2 form factor is required for NVMe
NVMe is a hard drive connection type
NVMe is a data access protocol (Correct answer)
NVMe is considerably quicker than M.2 based drives

Correct answer: NVMe is a data access protocol

NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) is a high-performance communication protocol specifically designed for accessing non-volatile storage media, particularly SSDs, over the PCIe bus. It is not a connection type or a form factor itself, but rather a protocol that optimizes how data is accessed from flash storage, enabling significantly faster data transfer rates and lower latency compared to older protocols like SATA.

Question 120: A technician wants to restart a service to see whether it fixes an application problem. Where can he restart the service?

Services.msc (Correct answer)
Event Viewer
Log Viewer
Regedit

Correct answer: Services.msc

Services.msc is the Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in specifically designed for managing Windows services. It allows technicians to start, stop, pause, resume, or restart any service, as well as configure their startup type and recovery actions. This tool provides a centralized interface for troubleshooting application problems by manipulating their underlying services.

Question 121: In the OSI model, de-encapsulation occurs at the receiving host. In what order are headers removed?

Transport → Network → Data Link → Physical → Session → Presentation → Application
Network → Transport → Data Link → Session → Presentation → Application → Physical
Physical → Data Link → Network → Transport → Session → Presentation → Application (Correct answer)
Application → Presentation → Session → Transport → Network → Data Link → Physical

Correct answer: Physical → Data Link → Network → Transport → Session → Presentation → Application

De-encapsulation proceeds from the bottom up — Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application — stripping each layer's header as data moves up the stack.

Question 122: A firewall rule base should follow which principle to reduce attack surface?

Implicit deny with explicit permits only for required traffic (Correct answer)
Deny inbound only, permit all outbound
Permit all, deny exceptions
Permit based on source IP alone

Correct answer: Implicit deny with explicit permits only for required traffic

Implicit deny (deny-all by default) ensures only explicitly approved traffic flows, minimizing exposure to unintended access.

Question 123: What type of RAM is used in most modern desktop computers?

SDRAM
EDO RAM
DDR4 SDRAM (Correct answer)
RDRAM

Correct answer: DDR4 SDRAM

DDR4 SDRAM is the standard RAM type used in most modern desktop computers, offering improved speed and efficiency over previous generations.

Question 124: A technician needs to connect an older VGA monitor to a new laptop that only has a USB-C port. What is the correct adapter path?

USB-C to DisplayPort, then passive DisplayPort to VGA cable
USB-C to HDMI, then HDMI to VGA active adapter
USB-C to VGA active adapter directly (Correct answer)
USB-C to DVI, then DVI to VGA passive adapter

Correct answer: USB-C to VGA active adapter directly

A USB-C to VGA active adapter handles the digital-to-analog conversion directly, providing the cleanest and simplest connection path.

Question 125: A technician is asked to add a second monitor to a workstation. The GPU has one HDMI and one DisplayPort output. The second monitor only has VGA input. What is needed?

A VGA splitter cable
A new GPU with a VGA output
No adapter is needed; DisplayPort and VGA are compatible
A DisplayPort to VGA active adapter (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A DisplayPort to VGA active adapter

An active DisplayPort to VGA adapter converts the digital signal to analog VGA, enabling connection to the older monitor.

Question 126: Which SNMP component is responsible for sending unsolicited alerts to the NMS when a threshold is exceeded?

Trap (Correct answer)
Community string
MIB
OID

Correct answer: Trap

SNMP Traps are unsolicited notifications sent by an agent to the NMS when a predefined threshold or event occurs.

Question 127: A small office/home office (SOHO) wants to set up a new wireless network. A technician purchases an all-in-one device that functions as a router, a switch, and a wireless access point. Which of the following security practices should be performed FIRST during the initial setup?

Enable MAC address filtering
Set up port forwarding for all devices
Disable the SSID broadcast
Change the default administrator password (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Change the default administrator password

The most critical first step in securing a new SOHO router is to change the default administrator username and password. Default credentials are often publicly known and can be easily exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access to the network's configuration settings.

Question 128: A technician notices that two switches connected via fiber show link-down status despite the fiber cable appearing undamaged. What is the MOST useful next step?

Check VLAN configuration on both switches
Use an optical power meter to measure signal loss on the fiber (Correct answer)
Re-crimp the fiber connectors
Replace both switches

Correct answer: Use an optical power meter to measure signal loss on the fiber

An optical power meter measures signal loss (attenuation) on fiber links, identifying breaks, dirty connectors, or bend-radius violations not visible to the eye.

Question 129: What is the fundamental principle behind operating systems in the CompTIA domain?

Cost minimization at all costs
Balancing performance, reliability, and efficiency (Correct answer)
Using the newest technology exclusively
Following a single vendor solution

Correct answer: Balancing performance, reliability, and efficiency

Effective technical design requires balancing performance requirements with reliability needs and operational efficiency.

Question 130: Identify the three major categories of mobile applications.

Native Application, Cloud Application, Local Application (Correct answer)
Web Application, Gaming Apps, Educational Apps
Hybrid Application, WhatsApp, Productivity apps
Native Application, Web Application, Hybrid Application

Correct answer: Native Application, Cloud Application, Local Application

The three major categories of mobile applications are Native Applications (developed specifically for a mobile OS like iOS or Android), Cloud Applications (web-based applications accessed via a browser or thin client, with most processing done remotely), and Local Applications (installed on the device, which can include native apps or locally stored web apps).

Question 131: What does NTFS offer over FAT32 that makes it preferred for modern Windows installations?

Faster read speeds on USB drives
Compatibility with macOS
Lower disk overhead
Support for files larger than 4 GB (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Support for files larger than 4 GB

NTFS supports individual file sizes greater than 4 GB, whereas FAT32 has a 4 GB per-file limit, making NTFS essential for modern workloads.

Question 132: What is the maximum number of spatial streams supported by 802.11ac?

2
16
4
8 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 8

802.11ac supports up to 8 spatial streams, though most consumer devices implement 3 or 4.

Question 133: What does the term "debugging" refer to in the context of software development?

Writing code for a program
Compiling a program for execution
Creating user interfaces for software
Fixing errors and issues in a program (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fixing errors and issues in a program

Debugging is the systematic process of identifying, analyzing, and resolving errors or 'bugs' within computer software or hardware. This crucial step ensures that a program functions correctly, reliably, and as intended, improving its overall quality and performance. It is distinct from the initial coding, user interface design, or compilation phases.

Question 134: Which of the following is NOT a benefit for Cloud Computing for business?

Possibility of better service quality
Cost reduction
Shifting from Capital to Operational Expenditures
Virtually infinite scalability of infrastructure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Virtually infinite scalability of infrastructure

While cloud computing offers significant scalability, it is not "virtually infinite." There are always practical limits based on the provider's total capacity, specific service quotas, and the customer's budget. The term "virtually infinite" can be misleading, as businesses still need to plan and manage their resource consumption within realistic bounds.

Question 135: In the context of operating systems, what is a 'kernel'?

A type of virtual machine
The graphical user interface of the OS
The OS installer program
The core component that manages hardware resources and system calls (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The core component that manages hardware resources and system calls

The kernel is the core of an operating system that directly manages hardware resources, handles system calls, and mediates communication between software and hardware.

Question 136: Which Windows OS feature prevents unauthorized changes by prompting the user for approval or credentials before allowing administrative actions?

Windows Defender SmartScreen
Credential Manager
User Account Control (UAC) (Correct answer)
Windows Firewall

Correct answer: User Account Control (UAC)

User Account Control (UAC) prompts users to confirm or provide administrator credentials before allowing programs to make changes that could affect the system.

Question 137: Your iPad has an application that ill not stop running. What feature/tool can you use to stop it?

time machine
forced kill
replay attack
force quit (Correct answer)

Correct answer: force quit

On Apple iOS devices (like an iPad), if an application becomes unresponsive or "will not stop running," users can perform a "force quit" to terminate it. This is typically done by swiping up from the bottom of the screen (or double-tapping the Home button on older devices) to bring up the App Switcher, then swiping the problematic app's preview card upwards to close it. This action forcibly ends the application's process.

Question 138: You've just successfully removed all viruses from a computer system. The seventh and last step in CompTIA A+'s "Best Practice for Removing Malware" is ____, according to CompTIA A+ specifications.

Educate the end user. (Correct answer)
Quarantine the affected system.
Disable system restore.
Download latest virus definition files.

Correct answer: Educate the end user.

According to CompTIA A+'s 'Best Practice for Removing Malware,' educating the end user is the seventh and final step in the malware removal process. This crucial step aims to prevent future infections by informing users about safe computing practices, recognizing threats, and understanding the importance of security measures. It empowers users to be more vigilant and proactive in maintaining system security.

Question 139: Which of the following words is used to describe an environmental control system?

HVAC (Correct answer)
HIPS
SCADA
TEMPEST

Correct answer: HVAC

HVAC stands for Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning. It is the standard term used to describe systems that control the environmental conditions within a building, including temperature, humidity, and air quality. These systems are crucial for maintaining optimal operating conditions for IT equipment in data centers and server rooms.

Question 140: Which Windows edition is the minimum required to join a computer to an Active Directory domain?

Windows Pro (Correct answer)
Windows Starter
Windows Home
Windows S Mode

Correct answer: Windows Pro

Windows Pro (and higher editions) support joining an Active Directory domain; Windows Home does not include this capability.

Question 141: A switch port shows excessive 'runts' in its interface statistics. What does a runt indicate?

Frames with incorrect VLAN tagging
Frames larger than the maximum allowed size
Frames smaller than the 64-byte minimum Ethernet frame size (Correct answer)
Frames that exceeded the TTL limit

Correct answer: Frames smaller than the 64-byte minimum Ethernet frame size

Runts are Ethernet frames shorter than 64 bytes (the minimum), typically caused by collisions or a malfunctioning NIC.

Question 142: Which security concept ensures that users only have access to the resources they need to perform their job?

Need to know
Defense in depth
Least privilege (Correct answer)
Separation of duties

Correct answer: Least privilege

The principle of least privilege restricts user access rights to only what is necessary for their specific job functions.

Question 143: In Windows, which built-in feature encrypts an entire drive volume to protect data at rest?

BitLocker (Correct answer)
EFS (Encrypting File System)
Windows Defender
Credential Guard

Correct answer: BitLocker

BitLocker provides full-volume encryption for Windows drives, protecting data at rest even if the physical drive is removed from the machine.

Question 144: Which of the following is a programming language commonly used for creating websites?

Excel
SQL
HTML (Correct answer)
Java

Correct answer: HTML

HTML (Hypertext Markup Language) is the foundational language for creating web pages and web applications. It defines the structure and content of a webpage, using tags to mark up elements like headings, paragraphs, images, and links. SQL is for databases, Java is a general-purpose programming language, and Excel is a spreadsheet application.

Question 145: The following is a description of a device used to safeguard electrical devices from large voltage fluctuations:

Surge suppressor (Correct answer)
Voltage regulator module (VRM)
Power Supply Unit (PSU)
Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)

Correct answer: Surge suppressor

A surge suppressor (or surge protector) is specifically designed to protect electronic devices from voltage spikes or surges by diverting excess voltage away from the connected equipment. While a UPS provides battery backup and some surge protection, its primary role is power continuity. A PSU converts AC to DC power, and a VRM regulates voltage for specific components within a system.

Question 146: A programmer writes a script in a language that is translated and executed line-by-line by another program every time the script is run. Which category of programming language is being used?

Markup language
Interpreted language (Correct answer)
Compiled language
Query language

Correct answer: Interpreted language

Interpreted languages are processed by an interpreter, which reads and executes the source code line by line without a separate compilation step. This contrasts with compiled languages, which are translated into machine code before execution.

Question 147: A network technician is troubleshooting a wireless client that can associate with the AP but cannot access network resources. The AP uses WPA2-Enterprise. What is the MOST likely cause?

Client certificate or RADIUS credentials are invalid (Correct answer)
The SSID is hidden
The AP is using TKIP instead of CCMP
The client's MAC address is blocked

Correct answer: Client certificate or RADIUS credentials are invalid

In WPA2-Enterprise, association succeeds but network access requires successful RADIUS authentication, which fails if credentials or certificates are wrong.

Question 148: What kind of connector with 40 pins is utilized for internal hard drives?

IDE (Correct answer)
RG-6
DB-40
SATA

Correct answer: IDE

Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE), also known as Parallel ATA (PATA), is an older interface standard used for connecting storage devices like hard drives and optical drives to a computer's motherboard. IDE cables are typically wide ribbon cables with 40 pins, distinguishing them from the smaller, newer SATA connectors. This interface was a standard for internal hard drives for many years.

Question 149: A company wants to prevent users from accessing social media during work hours. Which security control is BEST suited?

IDS signature update
Port security on switches
Content/URL filtering (Correct answer)
NAC health check

Correct answer: Content/URL filtering

Content/URL filtering (typically via a proxy or next-gen firewall) inspects URLs and blocks access to categories like social media.

Question 150: What is the purpose of a subnet mask?

To block unauthorized traffic at the perimeter
To assign MAC addresses to devices
To identify which portion of an IP address is the network vs. the host (Correct answer)
To encrypt communications between hosts

Correct answer: To identify which portion of an IP address is the network vs. the host

A subnet mask separates the network portion of an IP address from the host portion, enabling routers to determine if a destination is local or remote.

Question 151: Which topology connects every device directly to every other device, providing the highest redundancy?

Star
Full mesh (Correct answer)
Bus
Ring

Correct answer: Full mesh

A full mesh topology has a direct link between every pair of nodes, maximizing redundancy at the cost of cabling complexity.

Question 152: What is a key security concern unique to cloud computing environments compared to traditional on-premises deployments?

Physical server failure
Hardware procurement delays
Data sovereignty and multi-tenancy risks (Correct answer)
Lack of antivirus software

Correct answer: Data sovereignty and multi-tenancy risks

In cloud environments, data may reside in multiple geographic regions and share physical resources with other tenants, raising concerns about data sovereignty and isolation.

Question 153: Which foundational principle is MOST important for success in the CompTIA Computing Technology Industry Association profession?

Maintaining the minimum requirements for certification
Commitment to continuous learning, ethical practice, and quality outcomes (Correct answer)
Maximizing financial returns on every engagement
Specializing in only one narrow area of practice

Correct answer: Commitment to continuous learning, ethical practice, and quality outcomes

Success in any professional field requires a commitment to continuous learning to stay current, ethical practice to maintain trust and integrity, and a focus on quality outcomes that serve stakeholders and the public interest.

Question 154: In the event viewer, what symbol is used to signify a warning?

A red circle with an exclamation mark.
A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark. (Correct answer)
A red X inside a yellow box.
A blue circle with the letter I in the center.

Correct answer: A yellow triangle with an exclamation mark.

In the Windows Event Viewer, a yellow triangle with an exclamation mark is the standard icon used to denote a 'Warning' event. Warning events indicate potential problems that are not critical errors but could lead to issues, or they signify non-critical failures during an operation. This visual cue helps users quickly identify events that require attention but are not as severe as critical errors.

Question 155: Which mobile communications technology allows two portable devices to connect wirelessly at a range of roughly 2 inches, provides encryption, and is becoming a highly popular way of transmitting payments via a smartphone?

802.11 b
NFC (Correct answer)
Local area network
Bluetooth

Correct answer: NFC

Near Field Communication (NFC) is a short-range wireless technology that enables two devices to communicate when they are brought within a few centimeters (typically 2 inches) of each other. It provides secure, encrypted data exchange and is widely adopted for contactless payments, such as mobile wallets, and for quick pairing of devices. Its close-proximity requirement enhances security for transactions.

Question 156: What does 'multitasking' mean in the context of an operating system?

Connecting to multiple networks at once
Executing multiple processes or applications seemingly simultaneously (Correct answer)
Using multiple user accounts at the same time
Running multiple monitors on one computer

Correct answer: Executing multiple processes or applications seemingly simultaneously

Multitasking is the OS capability to manage and run multiple processes concurrently by rapidly switching between them.

Question 157: Which of the following is NOT an advantage of utilizing cloud infrastructure?

Cloud Infrastructure provides elasticity and rapid scalability based on demand
The Cloud Provider will handle security on your behalf (Correct answer)
The pay-as-you-go model necessitates a lower upfront investment for huge volumes of infrastructure
Cloud providers provide easy-to-use versions of complex technology that normally need the services of expert technicians

Correct answer: The Cloud Provider will handle security on your behalf

While cloud providers offer robust security *of* the cloud infrastructure, security *in* the cloud remains a shared responsibility. Customers are typically responsible for securing their data, applications, operating systems, and network configurations within the cloud environment. Relying solely on the provider for all security aspects is a common misconception and a significant security risk.

Question 158: Which of the following is utilized as a place holder in a RIMM-based system?

C-RIMM (Correct answer)
DDR SDRAMM
RIMME
None of the above

Correct answer: C-RIMM

In RIMM (Rambus In-line Memory Module) based systems, all memory slots must be populated for the system to function correctly and maintain signal integrity. A C-RIMM (Continuity RIMM) is a special module that does not contain actual memory chips but acts as a placeholder. It completes the electrical circuit in any unused RIMM slots, ensuring proper system operation.

Question 159: In CompTIA certification, what does redundancy in system design primarily provide?

Increased complexity
Fault tolerance and high availability (Correct answer)
Lower initial cost
Simplified maintenance

Correct answer: Fault tolerance and high availability

Redundancy provides fault tolerance by ensuring that if one component fails, backup components maintain system availability.

Question 160: Which of the following is an example of a high-level programming language?

Assembly
Machine code
Binary
Python (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Python

Python is a high-level programming language that abstracts hardware details, making it easier for humans to read and write.

Question 161: Which documentation is essential when working with operating systems in CompTIA?

Only verbal notes
Marketing materials
Detailed technical specifications and as-built diagrams (Correct answer)
General descriptions without specifics

Correct answer: Detailed technical specifications and as-built diagrams

Detailed technical specifications and as-built diagrams provide the accurate reference information needed for maintenance and troubleshooting.

Question 162: Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of an antivirus program?

To manage user account passwords securely
To detect, quarantine, and remove malicious software from a system (Correct answer)
To prevent unauthorized physical access to computers
To encrypt files before sending them over the internet

Correct answer: To detect, quarantine, and remove malicious software from a system

Antivirus software scans systems for known malware signatures and behaviors, then isolates or removes threats it finds.

Question 163: What protocol is commonly used for secure remote access to network devices?

Telnet
HTTP
SSH (Correct answer)
FTP

Correct answer: SSH

SSH (Secure Shell) is a cryptographic network protocol that allows secure remote access to computers and network devices over an unsecured network. It provides strong authentication and encrypts all communication, including passwords and data, protecting against eavesdropping and unauthorized access. Telnet, in contrast, transmits data in plain text and is considered insecure for remote management.

Question 164: Which cloud storage type is best suited for storing large amounts of unstructured data such as images, videos, and backups in a flat namespace?

Block storage
File storage
Archive storage
Object storage (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Object storage

Object storage stores data as discrete objects with metadata and unique identifiers in a flat namespace, making it ideal for large-scale unstructured data like media files and backups.

Question 165: What is the CIA triad in information security?

Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability (Correct answer)
Compliance, Investigation, and Authorization
Control, Isolation, and Auditing
Cryptography, Identification, and Authentication

Correct answer: Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability

The CIA triad — Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability — represents the three core goals of information security.

Question 166: Which of the following choices incorrectly defines the functionality of parity RAM or parity memory?

When a mistake is discovered, parity checking will terminate the procedure.
Parity RAM provides one bit every byte.
Parity RAM has the ability to self-correct identified errors. (Correct answer)
Parity checking is not available in all RAM.

Correct answer: Parity RAM has the ability to self-correct identified errors.

Parity RAM is designed to detect single-bit errors in memory by adding an extra 'parity' bit to each byte. If an error is detected, the system will typically report the error or halt operation to prevent data corruption. However, parity RAM does not have the capability to self-correct these identified errors; that functionality is provided by more advanced Error-Correcting Code (ECC) RAM.

Question 167: What is the difference between TCP and UDP?

TCP is reliable and connection-oriented; UDP is faster but connectionless with no delivery guarantee (Correct answer)
TCP is faster; UDP is slower but more reliable
TCP is used for video streaming; UDP is used for file transfers
TCP and UDP are identical protocols with different port numbers

Correct answer: TCP is reliable and connection-oriented; UDP is faster but connectionless with no delivery guarantee

TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is connection-oriented and provides reliable, ordered, error-checked delivery through acknowledgments and retransmission. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is connectionless and provides faster but unreliable delivery with no acknowledgments. TCP is used for HTTP/HTTPS, email, FTP. UDP is used for DNS, video streaming, VoIP.

Question 168: Which of the following is an example of an IDE (Integrated Development Environment)?

Notepad++
Visual Studio (Correct answer)
Microsoft Excel
Google Chrome

Correct answer: Visual Studio

An IDE (Integrated Development Environment) is a software application that provides comprehensive facilities for software development, typically including a code editor, debugger, and build automation tools. Visual Studio is a prominent example of an IDE, offering a complete environment for writing, testing, and deploying software. Google Chrome is a web browser, and Notepad++ is a text editor, not a full IDE.

Question 169: What is the function of the EPS 12V connector on a motherboard?

Supplies dedicated 12V power to the CPU voltage regulator (Correct answer)
Powers SATA devices on the board
Provides power to PCIe slots
Connects the front panel power button

Correct answer: Supplies dedicated 12V power to the CPU voltage regulator

The EPS 12V (8-pin) connector delivers dedicated 12-volt power directly to the motherboard's CPU voltage regulator module.

Question 170: Which Windows feature allows you to revert the OS to a previous working state without affecting personal files?

Startup Repair
System Restore (Correct answer)
Reset This PC (Remove Everything)
Windows RE (Recovery Environment)

Correct answer: System Restore

System Restore reverts Windows system files, registry settings, and installed programs to a previous restore point without deleting personal files (documents, photos, etc.). It does NOT protect against malware that infected personal files. System Restore points are created automatically before major updates and can be created manually.

Question 171: A technician is upgrading a workstation to support NVMe storage but the motherboard only has older PCIe 3.0 slots and no M.2 slots. What is the best solution?

Use a SATA to NVMe adapter cable
NVMe drives require M.2 slots and cannot be installed without one
Install a PCIe add-in card with an M.2 NVMe slot (Correct answer)
Replace the motherboard with one that has M.2 slots

Correct answer: Install a PCIe add-in card with an M.2 NVMe slot

PCIe add-in cards with M.2 slots allow NVMe SSDs to be installed in standard PCIe slots, enabling NVMe on older motherboards.

Question 172: What tool would you use to verify the integrity of a network cable?

Cable tester (Correct answer)
Protocol analyzer
Multimeter
Wireshark

Correct answer: Cable tester

A cable tester is a specialized diagnostic tool designed to verify the electrical connections and integrity of network cables. It can detect common wiring faults such as open circuits, short circuits, crossed pairs, and split pairs within the cable. This ensures that the cable is correctly terminated and capable of reliable data transmission.

Question 173: Which type of hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware without a host operating system?

Hosted hypervisor
Type 1 hypervisor (Correct answer)
Type 2 hypervisor
Paravirtualization layer

Correct answer: Type 1 hypervisor

A Type 1 (bare-metal) hypervisor runs directly on hardware, offering better performance and isolation than Type 2 hypervisors that run on top of a host OS.

Question 174: What mechanism prevents a PortFast-enabled port from causing switching loops if a rogue switch is connected?

Root guard
BPDU guard (Correct answer)
Storm control
Loop guard

Correct answer: BPDU guard

BPDU guard disables a PortFast port if it receives a BPDU, preventing a rogue switch from disrupting the STP topology.

Question 175: Which tool would BEST help a technician identify which physical port on a patch panel corresponds to a wall jack in another room?

Cable certifier
Optical power meter
Protocol analyzer
Toner probe (tone generator and probe) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Toner probe (tone generator and probe)

A tone generator injects an audio signal on the cable; the matching probe detects it at the other end, allowing identification of the correct patch panel port.

Question 176: What does an 'APIPA' address (169.254.x.x) on a Windows workstation indicate during troubleshooting?

The workstation failed to receive a DHCP lease (Correct answer)
IPv6 is disabled on the NIC
The workstation is configured with a static IP in that range
The default gateway is unreachable

Correct answer: The workstation failed to receive a DHCP lease

APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) assigns a 169.254.x.x address automatically when a DHCP server cannot be reached.

Question 177: What is the best practice for maintaining operating systems performance over time?

Wait for failures before acting
Outsource all maintenance
Upgrade all equipment annually
Implement scheduled preventive maintenance (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Implement scheduled preventive maintenance

Scheduled preventive maintenance catches potential issues before they cause failures, maintaining reliability and extending equipment life.

Question 178: In object-oriented programming, what is a 'class'?

A type of conditional statement
A blueprint for creating objects (Correct answer)
A network protocol
A running instance of a program

Correct answer: A blueprint for creating objects

A class is a blueprint or template that defines the properties and behaviors shared by objects created from it.

Question 179: What is the function of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?

Manage user access permissions
Monitor and alert on suspicious activity or policy violations (Correct answer)
Encrypt network communications
Block all unauthorized network traffic

Correct answer: Monitor and alert on suspicious activity or policy violations

An IDS monitors network traffic or system activity for suspicious behavior and generates alerts without actively blocking traffic.

Question 180: A network administrator configures QoS to prioritize VoIP traffic. Which OSI layer is primarily involved in this traffic prioritization?

Transport layer
Network layer (Correct answer)
Physical layer
Data Link layer

Correct answer: Network layer

QoS (Quality of Service) prioritization using DSCP markings occurs at the Network layer (Layer 3), though Layer 2 CoS markings also apply.

Question 181: In cloud computing, the process of combining computer resources and making them available for shared access by numerous clients is known as:

Measured service
Resource pooling (Correct answer)
Broad network access
On-demand self-service

Correct answer: Resource pooling

Resource pooling is a fundamental characteristic of cloud computing, as defined by NIST. It refers to the provider's ability to combine computing resources, such as processing power, storage, and network bandwidth, to serve multiple consumers using a multi-tenant model. This allows for dynamic allocation and reallocation of resources based on demand, optimizing utilization and efficiency.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) & Core 2 (220-1102)

CompTIA A+ certification validates the foundational skills necessary for an entry-level IT professional across a variety of devices and operating systems.

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