Treatment Planning & Protocols Flashcards
7 cards from real CO practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Treatment Planning & Protocols flashcards as text
A patient presents with Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease and bilateral foot drop. The treatment plan should include which primary orthotic consideration?
Answer: Bilateral custom AFOs to assist dorsiflexion during gait
CMT causes progressive peroneal and anterior tibialis weakness; bilateral custom AFOs provide dorsiflexion assistance during swing and midfoot stability during stance.
Which biomechanical principle guides the use of a three-point pressure system in spinal orthoses?
Answer: Applying forces at three points to create a corrective moment arm
Spinal orthoses use a three-point pressure system—two forces in one direction and a counterforce at the midpoint—to create a corrective bending moment along the spine.
When treating a patient with excessive subtalar pronation, what is the goal of posting (wedging) the orthotic device?
Answer: Realign the subtalar joint toward a neutral position
Posting (varus or valgus wedging) applies a ground-reaction moment to tilt the subtalar joint toward neutral, reducing pathological pronation.
A patient with T6 complete spinal cord injury wants to use long leg braces for therapeutic standing. Which is the MOST important criterion when developing this treatment plan?
Answer: Adequate upper extremity strength for support and transfers
Functional use of HKAFOs requires sufficient upper extremity strength to manage crutch ambulation, weight shifts, and donning/doffing of the orthoses.
In the treatment protocol for a patient with a distal radius fracture managed conservatively, when is it appropriate to transition from a wrist immobilization splint to a functional orthosis?
Answer: After radiographic evidence of healing (typically 6-8 weeks)
Transition to a functional orthosis occurs after radiographic confirmation of fracture healing, typically at 6-8 weeks, allowing progressive mobilization while protecting the wrist.
A patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome is recovering and has antigravity hip flexion but absent dorsiflexion. Which orthotic plan is most appropriate during this recovery phase?
Answer: Bilateral solid AFOs to prevent foot drop
GBS recovery is often incomplete and variable; AFOs address the most functionally limiting deficit (foot drop) while preserving voluntary movement at intact joints.
When planning treatment for a patient with Achilles tendinopathy using an orthotic approach, which heel lift height is considered the standard starting point?
Answer: 6-12 mm heel lift to reduce Achilles tensile load
A 6-12 mm heel lift reduces Achilles tendon tensile stress by decreasing the dorsiflexion moment arm during gait, allowing pain-free ambulation during healing.