CMT — Certified Medical Technician Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: During urinary catheterization, which principle must be strictly maintained throughout the procedure?

Reverse isolation technique
Standard precautions only
Contact precautions
Surgical aseptic technique (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Surgical aseptic technique

Urinary catheterization requires strict surgical aseptic technique to prevent introduction of pathogens into the sterile urinary tract.

Question 2: What is the first step in preparing a patient for a blood pressure measurement?

Ensure the patient is seated with their arm at heart level. (Correct answer)
Ask the patient to lay down.
Take the patient’s temperature first.
Wrap the cuff around the patient’s leg.

Correct answer: Ensure the patient is seated with their arm at heart level.

Proper patient positioning is vital for obtaining an accurate blood pressure reading. The patient should be comfortably seated with their back supported, feet flat on the floor, and the arm being measured supported at heart level. This ensures that hydrostatic pressure does not artificially inflate or deflate the reading, leading to reliable results.

Question 3: Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent healthcare-associated infections (HAIs)?

Wearing gloves for all patient contact and skipping hand hygiene
Using hand sanitizer only at the start of each shift
Changing gloves between patients without washing hands
Performing hand hygiene before and after every patient encounter (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Performing hand hygiene before and after every patient encounter

Hand hygiene before and after every patient contact is the single most effective measure to prevent the transmission of HAIs.

Question 4: The maximum volume for a single subcutaneous injection in an adult is typically:

0.5 mL
0.1 mL
3.0 mL
1.0-1.5 mL (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1.0-1.5 mL

The maximum volume for subcutaneous injection in adults is generally 1.0-1.5 mL to prevent tissue distension and discomfort.

Question 5: A medication that is administered by placing it between the resident's cheek and gum is delivered via which route?

Topical
Sublingual
Oral
Buccal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Buccal

The buccal route of administration involves placing a medication in the buccal pouch, which is the area between the cheek and the gum. The medication dissolves and is absorbed through the mucous membranes directly into the bloodstream. This is different from the sublingual route (under the tongue) and the oral route (swallowed).

Question 6: Which of the following patients is at highest risk for aspiration?

A patient with dysphagia lying flat (Correct answer)
An ambulatory patient drinking water
An alert patient sitting upright eating lunch
A patient with a broken arm eating soft foods

Correct answer: A patient with dysphagia lying flat

A patient with dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) who is lying flat is at highest risk for aspiration due to impaired swallowing reflexes and gravity.

Question 7: When providing rescue breaths during CPR, each breath should be delivered over:

3–4 seconds
1 second with visible chest rise (Correct answer)
0.5 seconds forcefully
5 seconds slowly

Correct answer: 1 second with visible chest rise

Each rescue breath should be delivered over 1 second and produce visible chest rise to avoid gastric inflation.

Question 8: A medical technician is performing a rapid strep test. What type of diagnostic procedure is this considered?

Serology testing
Point-of-care testing (POCT) (Correct answer)
Microbiology culture
Molecular diagnostics

Correct answer: Point-of-care testing (POCT)

A rapid strep test is a form of point-of-care testing (POCT). POCT is defined as medical diagnostic testing performed at or near the site of patient care, providing quick results that can be acted upon immediately.

Question 9: Which medical term refers to the surgical removal of the appendix?

Gastrectomy
Lobectomy
Cholecystectomy
Appendectomy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Appendectomy

The medical term 'appendectomy' refers to the surgical removal of the appendix. It is composed of 'append-' (referring to the appendix) and '-ectomy' (a suffix meaning surgical removal). This procedure is commonly performed to treat appendicitis, which is the inflammation of the appendix.

Question 10: After centrifugation of a serum separator tube (SST), the specimen layers from bottom to top are:

Plasma → buffy coat → red blood cells
Serum → buffy coat → clot
Serum → gel → red blood cells
Red blood cells → gel barrier → serum (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Red blood cells → gel barrier → serum

Centrifugal force moves denser red blood cells to the bottom; the gel barrier migrates between cells and serum, leaving the lighter serum on top for testing.

Question 11: A patient receiving an IV infusion develops redness, swelling, and coolness at the insertion site. This most likely indicates:

Phlebitis
Thrombosis
Infiltration (extravasation) (Correct answer)
Air embolism

Correct answer: Infiltration (extravasation)

Infiltration occurs when IV fluid leaks into surrounding tissue, causing swelling and coolness at the site.

Question 12: What is the correct procedure for administering an intramuscular injection?

Administer the injection at a 90-degree angle to the skin. (Correct answer)
Use a short needle for adults.
Inject the medication rapidly to ensure proper absorption.
Insert the needle at a 45-degree angle.

Correct answer: Administer the injection at a 90-degree angle to the skin.

Administering an intramuscular injection correctly requires inserting the needle at a 90-degree angle to the skin. This ensures the medication penetrates deep into the muscle tissue, bypassing the subcutaneous fat layer. Injecting at this angle promotes proper absorption and minimizes the risk of the medication being deposited into the wrong tissue, which could lead to pain or ineffective treatment.

Question 13: Rectal medication administration is appropriate when a patient:

Prefers this route over oral
Has an IV line available
Has a rectal infection
Is vomiting and unable to take oral medications (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Is vomiting and unable to take oral medications

The rectal route is used when oral administration is not possible due to nausea, vomiting, unconsciousness, or NPO status.

Question 14: Which of the following is an unacceptable practice when documenting in a medical record due to the high risk of medication errors?

Using military time (e.g., 14:00) for entries.
Writing out "international unit" instead of using an abbreviation.
Using the abbreviation "U" for "unit" when documenting an insulin dose. (Correct answer)
Documenting "0.5 mg" instead of ".5 mg".

Correct answer: Using the abbreviation "U" for "unit" when documenting an insulin dose.

The abbreviation "U" for unit is on The Joint Commission's "Do Not Use" list because it can easily be mistaken for a "0" (zero), the number "4", or "cc", leading to a significant overdose. The other options represent safe documentation practices.

Question 15: What is the meaning of the term 'hematology'?

Study of the heart
Study of the lungs
Study of the skin
Study of blood (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Study of blood

The term 'hematology' is derived from the Greek word 'haima,' meaning blood, and the suffix '-ology,' meaning the study of. Therefore, hematology is the medical specialty dedicated to the study of blood, blood-forming organs, and blood-related diseases. Hematologists diagnose and treat conditions such as anemia, leukemia, and clotting disorders.

Question 16: Which personal protective equipment (PPE) is REQUIRED when handling all patient specimens in the laboratory?

Gloves, lab coat, and eye protection (Correct answer)
Surgical mask and goggles only
Gloves only
N95 respirator and full gown

Correct answer: Gloves, lab coat, and eye protection

Standard precautions require gloves to protect hands from blood/body fluid contact, a lab coat to protect clothing and skin, and eye protection against splashes.

Question 17: When performing wound care, the correct technique for cleaning a wound is:

From the center of the wound outward (Correct answer)
Random pattern to cover all areas
Back and forth scrubbing across the wound
Circular motion from outer edges to center

Correct answer: From the center of the wound outward

Wounds should be cleaned from the center (cleanest area) outward (least clean area) to prevent introducing bacteria.

Question 18: The chain of infection includes six links. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

Susceptible host
Antibiotic resistance (Correct answer)
Reservoir
Portal of entry

Correct answer: Antibiotic resistance

Antibiotic resistance is not a link in the chain of infection. The six links are: infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host.

Question 19: What does the term 'tachycardia' mean?

Irregular heartbeat
Unstable blood pressure
Slow heart rate
Fast heart rate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fast heart rate

The term 'tachycardia' combines the Greek prefix 'tachy-,' meaning fast or rapid, with 'cardia,' referring to the heart. Thus, tachycardia specifically means a fast heart rate, typically defined as over 100 beats per minute in adults. It can be a normal physiological response or an indicator of an underlying medical issue.

Question 20: A patient presents with pale, cool, clammy skin, rapid weak pulse, and confusion. These signs indicate:

Hypertensive crisis
Anaphylaxis
Hypoglycemia
Hypovolemic shock (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hypovolemic shock

Pale, cool, clammy skin with rapid weak pulse and altered mental status are classic signs of hypovolemic (hemorrhagic) shock.

Question 21: What does the term 'NPO' mean in relation to diagnostic testing preparation?

No physical obstruction
Normal pre-operative
Non-pathological observation
Nothing by mouth (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Nothing by mouth

NPO (nil per os) means nothing by mouth and is required before many diagnostic procedures and surgeries.

Question 22: Which blood cells are primarily responsible for transporting oxygen?

Platelets
Plasma cells
White blood cells
Red blood cells (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Red blood cells

Red blood cells (erythrocytes) contain hemoglobin, which binds to oxygen for transport throughout the body.

Question 23: What type of muscle tissue is found in the walls of blood vessels?

Striated voluntary muscle
Skeletal muscle
Smooth muscle (Correct answer)
Cardiac muscle

Correct answer: Smooth muscle

Smooth muscle lines the walls of blood vessels and controls vasoconstriction and vasodilation.

Question 24: Which law regulates the privacy of patient health information?

Patient Protection Act
Affordable Care Act (ACA)
Medicare Access and CHIP Reauthorization Act (MACRA)
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is a federal law enacted in 1996 that specifically regulates the privacy and security of patient health information. HIPAA establishes national standards for protecting sensitive patient data from unauthorized disclosure, ensuring that healthcare providers and related entities handle medical records confidentially. This law grants patients significant rights over their health information.

Question 25: A patient is prescribed ear drops. Which technique should be used to straighten the ear canal in an adult?

Pull the pinna up and back (Correct answer)
Pull the pinna forward
Pull the pinna down and back
No manipulation needed

Correct answer: Pull the pinna up and back

In adults, pulling the pinna up and back straightens the ear canal, allowing the drops to reach the tympanic membrane.

Question 26: A patient with dysphagia is to receive oral medications. Which modification is appropriate ONLY with a physician's order?

Position the patient upright at 90 degrees
Offer medications one at a time
Provide a full glass of water with each tablet
Crush medications and mix with soft food (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Crush medications and mix with soft food

Crushing medications requires a physician's or pharmacist's order because some medications are contraindicated for crushing (extended-release, enteric-coated).

Question 27: When administering a transdermal patch, which of the following actions is a critical step to ensure patient safety and proper medication effect?

Writing the date, time, and your initials on the new patch before application. (Correct answer)
Cutting the patch in half if the resident complains the dose is too strong.
Applying the patch to an area with extensive hair or broken skin.
Placing the new patch in the exact same spot as the previous one.

Correct answer: Writing the date, time, and your initials on the new patch before application.

To ensure proper tracking and administration, the CMT should always label the new transdermal patch with the date, time of application, and their initials. It is also crucial to remove the old patch before applying the new one and to rotate application sites to prevent skin irritation. Patches should never be cut, and they should be applied to clean, dry, intact skin.

Question 28: During a routine physical assessment, the medical technician notices that a patient's skin is cyanotic. This finding suggests:

Hypoglycemia
Inadequate oxygenation (Correct answer)
Dehydration
Fever

Correct answer: Inadequate oxygenation

Cyanosis is a bluish discoloration of the skin caused by reduced oxygen levels in the blood.

Question 29: A patient requires a sputum specimen for culture. When is the best time to collect it?

At bedtime
After nebulizer treatment
After eating a meal
Upon awakening in the morning (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Upon awakening in the morning

Sputum is most concentrated and easiest to expectorate upon awakening, before eating or oral hygiene.

Question 30: Which test is used to evaluate kidney function by measuring waste product filtration?

Serum creatinine and GFR (Correct answer)
Hemoglobin A1c
Prothrombin time
Liver function test

Correct answer: Serum creatinine and GFR

Serum creatinine and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) are primary indicators of kidney function.

Question 31: Which site is most commonly used to assess pulse in an unresponsive adult?

Carotid artery (Correct answer)
Femoral artery
Radial artery
Brachial artery

Correct answer: Carotid artery

The carotid artery is used for pulse assessment in unresponsive adults because it is centrally located and easy to palpate.

Question 32: How long should a standard surgical hand scrub last?

1-2 minutes
10-15 minutes
2-6 minutes (Correct answer)
15-30 seconds

Correct answer: 2-6 minutes

A surgical hand scrub should last 2-6 minutes depending on the product used and institutional protocol.

Question 33: Before administering any medication, the medical technician must first verify:

That the patient has insurance coverage
That the medication is the cheapest available option
The prescriber's order and the five rights of medication administration (Correct answer)
That the pharmacy is open

Correct answer: The prescriber's order and the five rights of medication administration

Medication administration always begins with verifying a valid prescriber's order and checking the five rights: right patient, drug, dose, route, and time.

Question 34: The suffix '-ectomy' indicates:

Surgical removal of a structure (Correct answer)
Inflammation of a tissue
Visual examination of an organ
Incision into a body part

Correct answer: Surgical removal of a structure

The suffix '-ectomy' comes from Greek and means surgical removal or excision. For example, an appendectomy is removal of the appendix.

Question 35: When measuring blood pressure, the cuff should be placed approximately how far above the antecubital fossa?

3 inches (7.5 cm)
At the antecubital fossa
5 inches (12.5 cm)
1 inch (2.5 cm) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1 inch (2.5 cm)

Standard protocol places the BP cuff approximately 1 inch (2.5 cm) above the antecubital fossa for accurate readings.

Question 36: Which type of precaution requires a negative-pressure isolation room?

Standard precautions
Airborne precautions (Correct answer)
Droplet precautions
Contact precautions

Correct answer: Airborne precautions

Airborne precautions require a negative-pressure airborne infection isolation room (AIIR) to prevent transmission of airborne pathogens.

Question 37: A resident is using an inhaler for asthma. The medication needs to reach the smallest air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange occurs. What are these structures called?

Bronchi
Trachea
Larynx
Alveoli (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Alveoli

The alveoli are the tiny, numerous air sacs at the end of the respiratory tract where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the lungs and the bloodstream takes place.

Question 38: When removing sutures, the correct technique involves cutting the suture:

Anywhere, then using forceps to pull the knot
At the knot and pulling the long end through the tissue
On both sides and pulling from the middle
Close to the skin on one side and pulling through (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Close to the skin on one side and pulling through

Cutting close to the skin on one side prevents dragging the contaminated external suture through the tissue during removal.

Question 39: When performing a peak flow measurement, how many attempts should the patient perform and which result is recorded?

Three attempts; record the average
Two attempts; record the lowest value
Three attempts; record the highest value (Correct answer)
One attempt is sufficient

Correct answer: Three attempts; record the highest value

The patient performs three maximal efforts and the highest reading is recorded as the peak expiratory flow rate.

Question 40: Which organ is primarily responsible for filtering blood and producing urine?

Kidney (Correct answer)
Spleen
Liver
Pancreas

Correct answer: Kidney

The kidneys filter blood, remove waste products, and produce urine as part of the renal system.

Question 41: Which isolation precaution is required for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis?

Contact precautions only
Standard precautions only
Droplet precautions with a surgical mask
Airborne precautions with a negative-pressure room (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Airborne precautions with a negative-pressure room

Active TB is transmitted via airborne particles requiring a negative-pressure isolation room and N95 respirator use.

Question 42: When monitoring a patient on telemetry, which ECG rhythm requires immediate intervention?

Ventricular fibrillation (Correct answer)
Sinus bradycardia at 55 bpm in a sleeping patient
Sinus arrhythmia
Normal sinus rhythm

Correct answer: Ventricular fibrillation

Ventricular fibrillation is a lethal rhythm with no organized cardiac activity, requiring immediate defibrillation.

Question 43: Standard patient identification requires verifying at least:

One identifier (patient name)
Two identifiers (name and date of birth) (Correct answer)
Three identifiers (name, DOB, and room number)
The patient's verbal confirmation only

Correct answer: Two identifiers (name and date of birth)

The Joint Commission requires at least two patient identifiers before any procedure, medication, or specimen collection. Room number is never an acceptable identifier.

Question 44: A Certified Medical Technician (CMT) is preparing to assist a resident with a dressing change for a wound with a large amount of drainage. According to Standard Precautions, which combination of Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) is MOST appropriate for the CMT to wear?

Gloves and face shield
Gloves and gown (Correct answer)
Gloves only
Gown and mask only

Correct answer: Gloves and gown

Standard Precautions require wearing gloves when contact with blood, body fluids, or non-intact skin is possible. A gown is necessary to protect skin and clothing from splashes or sprays of body fluids, which is likely with a heavily draining wound. A mask and face shield would be needed if splashes to the face were anticipated, but gloves and a gown are the most essential items in this scenario.

Question 45: Which needle gauge is most appropriate for a routine venipuncture in an adult with average veins?

21 gauge (Correct answer)
25 gauge
14 gauge
18 gauge

Correct answer: 21 gauge

A 21-gauge needle is the standard choice for routine adult venipuncture, balancing flow rate and patient comfort.

Question 46: A CMT measures a resident's vital signs and finds the following: Blood Pressure 150/95 mmHg, Pulse 105 bpm, Respirations 22 rpm, Temperature 98.9°F. The resident's baseline blood pressure is typically 120/80 mmHg. What is the most appropriate action for the CMT to take?

Report the elevated blood pressure, pulse, and respirations to the supervising nurse. (Correct answer)
Document the vital signs and re-check them in four hours.
Ask the resident if they are feeling anxious or have been active.
Administer the resident's scheduled blood pressure medication immediately.

Correct answer: Report the elevated blood pressure, pulse, and respirations to the supervising nurse.

The CMT's primary role in monitoring is to collect data and report abnormal findings to the licensed nurse. The blood pressure, pulse, and respiration rate are all elevated compared to a typical baseline. This requires the clinical judgment of a nurse to assess the situation and decide on the appropriate intervention. A CMT does not independently decide to administer medication outside of the prescribed schedule or simply wait to re-assess significant changes.

Question 47: What is the primary purpose of healthcare professional certification?

To replace the need for continuing education
To validate that an individual meets established competency standards (Correct answer)
To increase salary
To allow unlimited scope of practice

Correct answer: To validate that an individual meets established competency standards

Certification validates that a healthcare professional has met standardized competency requirements through education, examination, and ongoing development.

Question 48: The term 'proximal' means:

Closer to the trunk or point of origin (Correct answer)
Farther from the trunk
Away from the midline
Toward the midline

Correct answer: Closer to the trunk or point of origin

Proximal means closer to the point of attachment or the trunk of the body.

Question 49: A patient is found unresponsive in their room. After calling for help, what is the NEXT immediate action according to basic life support guidelines?

Open the airway and check for normal breathing (Correct answer)
Begin chest compressions at a rate of 100–120 per minute
Check for a pulse for at least 10 seconds before acting
Retrieve the AED before doing anything else

Correct answer: Open the airway and check for normal breathing

After activating the emergency response system, the next step is to open the airway (head-tilt chin-lift) and check for normal breathing. This assessment determines whether CPR or rescue breathing is needed before initiating compressions.

Question 50: Which of the following medical terms means rapid heart rate?

Bradycardia
Cardiomegaly
Tachycardia (Correct answer)
Arrhythmia

Correct answer: Tachycardia

Tachycardia combines 'tachy-' (fast) with 'cardia' (heart), meaning a heart rate faster than normal (typically above 100 bpm in adults). Bradycardia is the opposite — a slow heart rate.

Question 51: The central nervous system (CNS) is the primary control center for the body. A medication that is classified as a 'CNS depressant' will primarily affect which two anatomical structures?

Heart and lungs
Brain and spinal cord (Correct answer)
Stomach and intestines
Peripheral nerves and ganglia

Correct answer: Brain and spinal cord

The central nervous system is composed of the brain and the spinal cord. These two structures work together to process information and coordinate all bodily functions.

Question 52: The suffix '-ectomy' in a medical procedure name means:

Visual examination of
Surgical removal of (Correct answer)
Surgical incision into
Creation of an opening in

Correct answer: Surgical removal of

The suffix '-ectomy' means surgical removal or excision, as in appendectomy (removal of the appendix).

Question 53: Which of the following is an example of unethical behavior in medical practice?

Providing informed consent.
Reporting false patient information. (Correct answer)
Maintaining patient confidentiality.
Collaborating with other healthcare professionals.

Correct answer: Reporting false patient information.

Reporting false patient information is a severe breach of medical ethics and professional integrity. This unethical behavior compromises the accuracy of medical records, which can lead to incorrect diagnoses, inappropriate treatments, and potential harm to the patient. It also erodes trust in the healthcare system and violates the core principles of honesty and patient safety.

Question 54: Which vital sign measurement requires the use of a tympanic thermometer?

Axillary temperature
Rectal temperature
Oral temperature
Ear (aural) temperature (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ear (aural) temperature

A tympanic thermometer measures temperature via infrared detection of heat from the tympanic membrane in the ear.

Question 55: Nitroglycerin is primarily used to treat:

Hypertension
Diabetes
Bacterial infections
Angina pectoris (chest pain) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Angina pectoris (chest pain)

Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator primarily used to relieve angina pectoris by dilating coronary arteries and reducing cardiac workload.

Question 56: Which medical abbreviation indicates a medication should be taken twice daily?

BID (Correct answer)
TID
QD
QID

Correct answer: BID

BID stands for 'bis in die,' meaning twice daily; QD=once, TID=three times, QID=four times daily.

Question 57: A resident begins to experience shortness of breath, hives, and swelling of the lips shortly after receiving a new antibiotic. The CMT recognizes these signs are indicative of what type of medication action?

A therapeutic effect
An expected side effect
An anaphylactic reaction (Correct answer)
A synergistic effect

Correct answer: An anaphylactic reaction

The signs described—shortness of breath, hives (urticaria), and swelling (angioedema)—are classic symptoms of anaphylaxis, a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction. This is an adverse drug reaction that requires immediate medical intervention. A therapeutic effect is the desired outcome, and an expected side effect is a known, non-allergic reaction that is generally less severe.

Question 58: Which evacuated tube color is used for coagulation studies such as PT and PTT?

Lavender
Green
Red
Light blue (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Light blue

Light blue (sodium citrate) tubes are used for coagulation studies because citrate binds calcium to prevent clotting while preserving clotting factor activity.

Question 59: Contact precautions for a patient with MRSA require healthcare workers to:

Wear an N95 respirator at all times
Wear only gloves when entering the room
No special precautions beyond standard precautions
Wear a gown and gloves when entering the room (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Wear a gown and gloves when entering the room

Contact precautions for MRSA require donning a gown and gloves before entering the patient's room, with hand hygiene upon removal.

Question 60: The medical term 'dyspnea' refers to:

Difficulty swallowing
Difficulty speaking
Difficulty urinating
Difficulty breathing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Difficulty breathing

Dyspnea means difficulty breathing or shortness of breath, from the Greek 'dys' (difficult) and 'pnea' (breathing).

Question 61: A medical technician is asked by a supervisor to skip required quality control steps to save time. What should the technician do?

Refuse to skip required QC steps and report the request if necessary (Correct answer)
Follow the supervisor's instruction to maintain workplace harmony
Skip the steps but document that they were done
Perform QC steps only for the first patient of the day

Correct answer: Refuse to skip required QC steps and report the request if necessary

Required quality control steps are mandated by CLIA and cannot be skipped; the technician has an ethical and legal obligation to perform them and report improper instructions.

Question 62: What is the normal range for adult respiratory rate at rest?

8-10 breaths per minute
12-20 breaths per minute (Correct answer)
30-40 breaths per minute
22-30 breaths per minute

Correct answer: 12-20 breaths per minute

The normal adult respiratory rate at rest is 12-20 breaths per minute.

Question 63: A sputum specimen for culture should ideally be collected:

After vigorous exercise
At bedtime following oral hygiene
After a full meal to maximize secretions
First thing in the morning before eating or brushing teeth (Correct answer)

Correct answer: First thing in the morning before eating or brushing teeth

First-morning sputum contains the highest concentration of overnight accumulated secretions from the lower respiratory tract, improving diagnostic yield.

Question 64: Which of the following actions is the MOST common cause of hemolysis during venipuncture?

Applying the tourniquet correctly
Using a large-bore needle
Mixing tubes too vigorously (Correct answer)
Collecting from an antecubital vein

Correct answer: Mixing tubes too vigorously

Vigorous mixing of tubes breaks red blood cell membranes, releasing intracellular contents and causing hemolysis that can interfere with test results.

Question 65: When completing a charting entry in a resident's medical record, which of the following is essential for the entry to be considered legally valid?

The entry must be reviewed by the facility administrator within 24 hours.
The entry must be written in blue ink only.
The entry must include the date, time, and the CMT's legible signature and professional title. (Correct answer)
The entry must be co-signed by the supervising nurse.

Correct answer: The entry must include the date, time, and the CMT's legible signature and professional title.

For a medical record entry to be legally sound, it must be clearly identifiable to the person who made it. This requires the date and time of the entry, as well as the full signature and professional title (e.g., J. Smith, CMT) of the individual. This ensures accountability and authenticity.

Question 66: The medical abbreviation 'PRN' means:

Every hour
As needed (Correct answer)
After meals
Before surgery

Correct answer: As needed

PRN (pro re nata) is a Latin abbreviation meaning 'as the situation demands' or 'as needed.'

Question 67: Which temperature range is required for the transport of most routine blood specimens to preserve analyte stability?

Room temperature (20°C to 25°C) (Correct answer)
37°C (body temperature)
2°C to 8°C (refrigerated)
–20°C to –80°C (frozen)

Correct answer: Room temperature (20°C to 25°C)

Most routine blood specimens are transported at room temperature (20–25°C) because refrigeration can cause cold agglutination or analyte precipitation that alters results.

Question 68: Restraint use in healthcare requires:

A physician's order specifying type, reason, duration, and regular reassessment (Correct answer)
Only verbal permission from the charge nurse
No documentation since restraints are routine
Standing orders that apply to all confused patients

Correct answer: A physician's order specifying type, reason, duration, and regular reassessment

Restraints require a specific physician's order, clear clinical indication, time limits, and frequent reassessment of the patient.

Question 69: Which artery is typically used for routine adult pulse assessment?

Radial (Correct answer)
Dorsalis pedis
Femoral
Popliteal

Correct answer: Radial

The radial artery at the wrist is the standard site for routine pulse assessment in adults.

Question 70: When oxygen is in use, which of the following represents a safety hazard?

Having an electrical call bell within reach
Using petroleum-based products near the patient (Correct answer)
Using water-based lubricants near the oxygen source
Posting 'Oxygen in Use' signage on the door

Correct answer: Using petroleum-based products near the patient

Petroleum-based products (Vaseline, oil-based lip balm) are flammable and create a fire hazard in oxygen-enriched environments.

Question 71: What is the normal respiratory rate for a resting adult?

12–20 breaths/min (Correct answer)
6–10 breaths/min
30–36 breaths/min
22–28 breaths/min

Correct answer: 12–20 breaths/min

A normal adult respiratory rate at rest is 12–20 breaths per minute.

Question 72: Which of the following is a sign of orthostatic hypotension?

Decreased SpO2 during ambulation
Dizziness and drop in BP of ≥20 mmHg systolic upon standing (Correct answer)
Blood pressure rise of 20 mmHg upon standing
Elevated pulse rate when lying down

Correct answer: Dizziness and drop in BP of ≥20 mmHg systolic upon standing

Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop of ≥20 mmHg systolic or ≥10 mmHg diastolic within 3 minutes of standing.

Question 73: A patient has a suspected spinal injury after a fall. What is the priority intervention?

Immobilize the spine and minimize movement (Correct answer)
Perform passive range-of-motion exercises
Help the patient sit up to breathe easier
Perform the Heimlich maneuver

Correct answer: Immobilize the spine and minimize movement

Spinal immobilization and minimal movement are critical to prevent secondary spinal cord injury.

Question 74: What should you do if a patient begins to show signs of distress during a procedure?

Ignore the signs as it might be temporary.
Continue the procedure and observe the patient.
Administer medication without consultation.
Immediately stop the procedure and call for assistance. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately stop the procedure and call for assistance.

Patient distress during a procedure can indicate a serious complication, an adverse reaction, or severe discomfort. Immediately stopping the procedure ensures the patient's safety and allows for a prompt assessment of their condition. Calling for assistance brings in additional medical expertise to manage the situation effectively.

Question 75: The legal principle of 'scope of practice' is best defined as:

The requirement to keep all patient health information private and secure.
A law that protects individuals who provide emergency assistance from liability.
The range of duties and procedures a healthcare professional is allowed to perform under their professional license or certification. (Correct answer)
A legal document that outlines a patient's wishes for end-of-life care.

Correct answer: The range of duties and procedures a healthcare professional is allowed to perform under their professional license or certification.

Scope of practice defines the procedures, actions, and processes that a healthcare professional is permitted to undertake in keeping with the terms of their professional license or certification. For a CMT, this would include tasks like administering non-parenteral medications but would exclude actions like making a diagnosis or adjusting medication dosages.

Question 76: When a physician orders medications 'QHS,' when should the medication be administered?

At bedtime every night (Correct answer)
Every morning upon waking
Four times daily
Every hour

Correct answer: At bedtime every night

QHS stands for 'quaque hora somni,' meaning every night at bedtime or hour of sleep.

Question 77: A capillary puncture on an adult finger should be performed on which part of the fingertip?

Tip of the index finger
Base of the thumb
Center of the fingertip pad
Side of the middle or ring finger (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Side of the middle or ring finger

The lateral (side) aspect of the middle or ring finger is the preferred site because it has adequate capillary beds and avoids nerves and bone centrally located in the fingertip.

Question 78: The proper technique for oral suctioning includes:

Using maximum suction pressure at all times
Inserting without suction and applying suction during withdrawal (Correct answer)
Suctioning for at least 30 seconds at a time
Applying continuous suction while inserting the catheter

Correct answer: Inserting without suction and applying suction during withdrawal

The catheter should be inserted without suction applied and suction activated only during withdrawal to prevent tissue damage.

Question 79: A resident has a physician's order for an oral tablet, but they are currently experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the most appropriate action for the CMT to take?

Withhold the medication and report the resident's symptoms to the nurse. (Correct answer)
Crush the tablet and mix it with applesauce.
Wait 30 minutes and try to administer the medication again.
Administer the medication with a large glass of water to settle the stomach.

Correct answer: Withhold the medication and report the resident's symptoms to the nurse.

The oral route is contraindicated for a resident who is actively vomiting, as they will be unable to keep the medication down, leading to an incorrect or missed dose. The CMT's primary responsibility is to ensure safe medication administration. The most appropriate and safest action is to withhold the dose, document the reason, and immediately report the resident's condition to the supervising licensed nurse for further assessment and instructions.

Question 80: When collecting a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity, which collection method is required to prevent contamination?

Catheter bag drainage specimen
Last-void specimen of the day
First-void specimen collected in any clean cup
Midstream clean-catch technique (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Midstream clean-catch technique

The midstream clean-catch technique flushes urethral contaminants with the initial urine stream before collecting the specimen, providing an accurate sample for culture. Catheter bag specimens and first-void samples are prone to colonization and contamination.

Question 81: Which injection route has the slowest absorption rate?

Intravenous
Intradermal (Correct answer)
Intramuscular
Subcutaneous

Correct answer: Intradermal

Intradermal injections are placed in the dermis, which has limited blood supply, resulting in the slowest absorption.

Question 82: The minimum data set that should be documented for every patient encounter includes:

Patient name and diagnosis code
Only the chief complaint
Patient identification, date/time, vital signs, assessment, interventions, and provider signature (Correct answer)
Insurance information and billing codes only

Correct answer: Patient identification, date/time, vital signs, assessment, interventions, and provider signature

Every patient encounter requires documentation of identification, date/time, clinical findings, care provided, and provider identification.

Question 83: The sublingual route of medication administration involves placing the medication:

Between the cheek and gum
In the ear canal
Under the tongue (Correct answer)
On the skin surface

Correct answer: Under the tongue

Sublingual means 'under the tongue,' where the medication dissolves and is absorbed directly into the bloodstream through the oral mucosa.

Question 84: A throat culture is primarily used to detect which pathogen?

Group A Streptococcus (Correct answer)
Escherichia coli
Candida albicans
Staphylococcus aureus

Correct answer: Group A Streptococcus

Throat cultures are primarily performed to detect Group A Streptococcus (Strep pyogenes), the cause of strep throat.

Question 85: Which specimen tube color is used for a complete blood count (CBC)?

Green top
Lavender/purple top (Correct answer)
Blue top
Red top

Correct answer: Lavender/purple top

Lavender (purple) top tubes contain EDTA anticoagulant, which is required for CBC testing.

Question 86: Which type of joint allows the greatest range of motion?

Saddle joint
Ball-and-socket joint (Correct answer)
Hinge joint
Pivot joint

Correct answer: Ball-and-socket joint

Ball-and-socket joints, such as the hip and shoulder, allow movement in all planes including rotation.

Question 87: The abbreviation 'PRN' on a medication order means the drug should be given:

Every morning before meals
At bedtime only
As needed based on patient condition (Correct answer)
Every four hours around the clock

Correct answer: As needed based on patient condition

PRN stands for 'pro re nata,' a Latin phrase meaning 'as needed' based on the patient's condition.

Question 88: When transferring a patient from bed to wheelchair, the wheelchair should be positioned:

Directly at the foot of the bed
At least 6 feet from the bed
At a 45-degree angle on the patient's stronger side (Correct answer)
Perpendicular to the bed on either side

Correct answer: At a 45-degree angle on the patient's stronger side

The wheelchair should be placed at a 45-degree angle on the patient's stronger side to allow the patient to bear weight and pivot on their stronger leg.

Question 89: Standard precautions apply to which of the following?

Only patients with known infectious diseases
Only patients in isolation rooms
Only surgical patients
All patients regardless of diagnosis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: All patients regardless of diagnosis

Standard precautions are applied to all patients in all healthcare settings, regardless of known or suspected infection status.

Question 90: A blood pressure reading of 142/92 mmHg is classified as:

Stage 2 hypertension
Normal
Elevated
Stage 1 hypertension (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Stage 1 hypertension

According to AHA guidelines, a systolic of 130–139 or diastolic of 80–89 mmHg is Stage 1 hypertension; 142/92 falls in Stage 1.

Question 91: A medication's 'half-life' refers to:

The shelf life of the medication
The time required for half the drug to be eliminated from the body (Correct answer)
The time it takes for the drug to reach full effect
Half the recommended dosage

Correct answer: The time required for half the drug to be eliminated from the body

Half-life is the time required for the plasma concentration of a drug to decrease by 50% through metabolism and elimination.

Question 92: In an anaphylactic reaction, the medication of choice for initial emergency treatment is:

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
Epinephrine (auto-injector) (Correct answer)
Methylprednisolone
Albuterol inhaler

Correct answer: Epinephrine (auto-injector)

Epinephrine (1:1000 IM) is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its rapid bronchodilation and vasopressor effects.

Question 93: What is the importance of obtaining informed consent from patients?

To allow patients to make decisions about their healthcare. (Correct answer)
To prevent legal issues.
To comply with hospital policies.
To avoid expensive treatments.

Correct answer: To allow patients to make decisions about their healthcare.

Obtaining informed consent is a fundamental ethical and legal requirement in healthcare, empowering patients to make autonomous decisions about their medical care. It ensures that patients receive comprehensive information about a proposed procedure, including its risks, benefits, alternatives, and the consequences of refusal. This process allows patients to make a voluntary and educated choice, respecting their right to self-determination.

Question 94: The Z-track technique for intramuscular injection is used to:

Speed up medication absorption
Reduce the pain of injection
Allow for larger volumes of medication
Prevent medication from leaking back through the needle track (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prevent medication from leaking back through the needle track

The Z-track method displaces the skin and subcutaneous tissue before injection, creating a zigzag path that seals the medication in the muscle.

Question 95: A tourniquet should be applied no longer than how many minutes before venipuncture to prevent hemoconcentration?

1 minute (Correct answer)
5 minutes
2 minutes
30 seconds

Correct answer: 1 minute

A tourniquet left on longer than 1 minute causes hemoconcentration and falsely elevated results for proteins, enzymes, and cellular components.

Question 96: Which organism is most commonly associated with healthcare-associated infections from improper catheter care?

Mycobacterium tuberculosis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Escherichia coli (Correct answer)
Haemophilus influenzae

Correct answer: Escherichia coli

E. coli is the most common cause of catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs).

Question 97: Which patient position is used during a lumbar puncture (spinal tap)?

Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to chest (fetal position) (Correct answer)
High-Fowler's with legs extended
Trendelenburg position
Prone with a pillow under the abdomen

Correct answer: Lateral recumbent with knees drawn to chest (fetal position)

The lateral recumbent fetal position (or sitting hunched forward) maximizes intervertebral space, allowing safe needle insertion.

Question 98: The trachea divides into two main branches called:

Pleura
Bronchi (Correct answer)
Bronchioles
Alveoli

Correct answer: Bronchi

The trachea bifurcates at the carina into the right and left main bronchi, which enter each lung.

Question 99: A fasting blood glucose level of 126 mg/dL or higher on two separate occasions indicates:

Diabetes mellitus (Correct answer)
Normal glucose metabolism
Prediabetes
Hypoglycemia

Correct answer: Diabetes mellitus

A fasting blood glucose of 126 mg/dL or higher on two occasions meets the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus.

Question 100: A patient's temperature is 38.5°C. What is this in Fahrenheit?

101.3°F (Correct answer)
99.3°F
100.1°F
103.1°F

Correct answer: 101.3°F

Using the formula (°C × 9/5) + 32: (38.5 × 1.8) + 32 = 101.3°F.

Question 101: A resident with asthma is due for their medication administered via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which instruction is essential for the CMT to give the resident to ensure the medication is delivered effectively?

"It is not necessary to wait between puffs if a second dose is ordered."
"Shake the inhaler well before use and take a slow, deep breath as you press the canister." (Correct answer)
"Inhale as quickly as you can after pressing the canister."
"Hold your breath for 1-2 seconds after inhaling the medication."

Correct answer: "Shake the inhaler well before use and take a slow, deep breath as you press the canister."

For effective medication delivery from an MDI, the canister must be shaken well to mix the medication and propellant. The resident should then inhale slowly and deeply at the same time the canister is pressed to draw the medication deep into the lungs. Holding the breath for about 10 seconds after inhalation allows the medication to settle in the airways. Inhaling too quickly can cause the medication to deposit in the mouth or throat. If a second puff is needed, the resident should wait 20-30 seconds between puffs of the same medication.

Question 102: The combining form 'cardio-' refers to which organ?

Heart (Correct answer)
Liver
Lung
Kidney

Correct answer: Heart

The combining form 'cardio-' refers to the heart, as in cardiology, cardiovascular, and cardiomyopathy.

Question 103: A resident tells the CMT, "My stomach feels like it's on fire." Which of the following is the most appropriate and accurate way to document this statement in the medical record?

Resident has severe heartburn.
Resident states, "My stomach feels like it's on fire." (Correct answer)
Resident is complaining of gastrointestinal distress.
Resident appears to be in significant pain from their stomach.

Correct answer: Resident states, "My stomach feels like it's on fire."

When documenting subjective information, it is best practice to use the resident's exact words in quotation marks. This avoids interpretation and provides the most accurate account of the resident's complaint. The other options are interpretations or generalizations of what the resident said.

Question 104: Chain of custody documentation for a laboratory specimen is MOST important when:

The specimen will be tested for forensic, legal, or drug screening purposes (Correct answer)
The patient has a difficult venipuncture site
The specimen is being tested for routine CBC
The specimen was collected early in the morning

Correct answer: The specimen will be tested for forensic, legal, or drug screening purposes

Chain of custody documentation provides a legal record of who collected, handled, and tested the specimen, which is essential for forensic and drug testing results to be admissible in legal proceedings.

Question 105: What should a medical technician do if they accidentally stick themselves with a used needle?

Report the incident immediately and seek medical attention. (Correct answer)
Continue with the procedure, as it’s a common mistake.
Use the needle for another task.
Dispose of the needle and keep working.

Correct answer: Report the incident immediately and seek medical attention.

Accidentally sticking oneself with a used needle is a serious occupational hazard that carries a significant risk of transmitting bloodborne pathogens. The immediate and correct action is to report the incident to a supervisor and seek medical attention without delay. This allows for proper documentation, risk assessment, and timely initiation of post-exposure prophylaxis if necessary, protecting the healthcare worker's health.

Question 106: A patient's blood pressure is 180/110 mmHg and they have a severe headache. The medical technician should:

Recheck the blood pressure in 30 minutes
Administer an antihypertensive from the unit's medication cart
Document the finding and proceed with the scheduled procedure
Immediately report the findings to the nurse or provider (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Immediately report the findings to the nurse or provider

A blood pressure of 180/110 with symptoms of severe headache is a hypertensive urgency requiring immediate reporting to the clinical team.

Question 107: The correct technique for counting respirations is to:

Ask the patient to count each breath aloud
Tell the patient to breathe normally and count
Count only during exhalation phases
Count breaths without informing the patient to avoid conscious alteration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Count breaths without informing the patient to avoid conscious alteration

Respirations should be counted without the patient's knowledge because awareness can alter breathing pattern.

Question 108: The term 'contraindication' in pharmacology means:

The preferred route of administration
The recommended therapeutic dose
A reason NOT to use a particular treatment or drug (Correct answer)
A beneficial drug interaction

Correct answer: A reason NOT to use a particular treatment or drug

A contraindication is a specific situation or condition that makes a particular treatment or drug inadvisable.

Question 109: A Certified Medical Technician (CMT) is preparing to administer a medication to a resident. The Medication Administration Record (MAR) says to give 'Lisinopril 10 mg by mouth once daily'. The medication package from the pharmacy is labeled 'Lisinopril 20 mg'. What is the MOST appropriate action for the CMT to take?

Use a pill-cutter to split the 20 mg tablet in half to provide the correct 10 mg dose.
Administer the 20 mg tablet because it is the same medication.
Ask the resident if they normally take a 10 mg or 20 mg tablet.
Withhold the medication and report the discrepancy to the supervising nurse immediately. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Withhold the medication and report the discrepancy to the supervising nurse immediately.

The 'Six Rights of Medication Administration' include the Right Drug, Right Dose, Right Time, Right Route, Right Patient, and Right Documentation. In this scenario, the dose on the pharmacy label (20 mg) does not match the dose on the MAR (10 mg). A CMT's scope of practice does not include altering medication dosages. Therefore, the safest and most appropriate action is to stop the administration process and immediately report the discrepancy to the supervising nurse for clarification and resolution.

Question 110: Why is it important to keep the patient's environment clean and organized during treatment?

It is only important for cosmetic procedures.
It allows for faster patient discharge.
It makes the treatment process quicker.
It prevents the spread of infections and provides a safe environment. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It prevents the spread of infections and provides a safe environment.

A clean and organized patient environment is essential for infection control, as it reduces the presence of pathogens. It also minimizes hazards, preventing falls or other accidents, thereby ensuring patient safety. A tidy space contributes to a more comfortable and healing atmosphere for the patient.

Question 111: Warfarin (Coumadin) therapy requires regular monitoring of which lab test?

Blood glucose
INR/PT (International Normalized Ratio/Prothrombin Time) (Correct answer)
Serum creatinine
Complete blood count

Correct answer: INR/PT (International Normalized Ratio/Prothrombin Time)

Warfarin's anticoagulant effect is monitored using INR (International Normalized Ratio), with a typical therapeutic range of 2.0-3.0.

Question 112: When performing hand hygiene with an alcohol-based hand sanitizer, the CMT should rub their hands together until when?

The hands feel completely dry (Correct answer)
A sticky feeling develops
For at least 10 seconds
The foam has disappeared

Correct answer: The hands feel completely dry

According to the CDC, when using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer, you should apply the product to the palm of one hand and rub your hands together, covering all surfaces of your hands and fingers, until your hands are dry. This typically takes about 20 seconds and ensures the sanitizer has had enough contact time to be effective.

Question 113: A technician is instructed to obtain a sample for a Complete Metabolic Panel (CMP). Which of the following tests is included in a CMP?

Hemoglobin A1c
Thyroid-Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) (Correct answer)
White Blood Cell (WBC) count

Correct answer: Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)

A Comprehensive Metabolic Panel (CMP) is a blood test that measures 14 different substances in the blood. It provides information about the body's metabolism, including the health of the kidneys and liver. Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) is a liver function test that is a standard component of the CMP.

Question 114: A patient arrives at the clinic for a scheduled glucose tolerance test. The technician performs a point-of-care fasting glucose test, which reads 135 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step?

Repeat the point-of-care test on the other hand.
Administer the glucose beverage and proceed with the test.
Cancel the test and inform the patient to reschedule.
Notify the ordering physician of the fasting glucose result before proceeding. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Notify the ordering physician of the fasting glucose result before proceeding.

A fasting glucose level of 135 mg/dL is above the normal range. Standard protocol for a glucose tolerance test requires notifying the physician if the initial fasting glucose is elevated, as proceeding with the high-sugar beverage could be unsafe for the patient. The physician will then decide whether to continue with the test.

Question 115: The OSHA Hazard Communication Standard (HazCom) requires medical technicians to have access to which documents for chemical safety?

Manufacturer's product warranties
Insurance policy documents
CLIA proficiency testing reports
Safety Data Sheets (SDS) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Safety Data Sheets (SDS)

Safety Data Sheets (SDS) provide essential information about chemical hazards, safe handling procedures, and emergency response measures.

Question 116: Which tube additive prevents glycolysis and preserves glucose levels in a specimen?

EDTA
Sodium heparin
Sodium fluoride/potassium oxalate (Correct answer)
Sodium citrate

Correct answer: Sodium fluoride/potassium oxalate

Sodium fluoride inhibits the enzyme enolase to stop glycolysis, while potassium oxalate acts as an anticoagulant, making this tube the standard choice for glucose testing.

Question 117: A Certified Medical Technician (CMT) is making rounds in a long-term care facility. Which of the following represents the MOST immediate safety risk that requires intervention?

A small spill of water is on the floor in the corner of the hallway.
A resident's call light is pinned to their bed linens, slightly out of reach.
A resident is attempting to get out of bed without assistance, and their bed alarm is sounding. (Correct answer)
Two residents are having a loud disagreement in the common area.

Correct answer: A resident is attempting to get out of bed without assistance, and their bed alarm is sounding.

A resident attempting to get out of bed unassisted, especially when a bed alarm is sounding, indicates an immediate and high risk of falling. Falls are a major cause of injury in healthcare settings. The other options are safety concerns but do not present the same level of immediate, direct physical danger to a resident.

Question 118: Which term correctly describes inflammation of the liver?

Nephritis
Pancreatitis
Hepatitis (Correct answer)
Cholecystitis

Correct answer: Hepatitis

Hepatitis means inflammation of the liver; 'hepato-' refers to the liver and '-itis' means inflammation.

Question 119: The Modified Early Warning Score (MEWS) is used to:

Identify patients at risk of clinical deterioration (Correct answer)
Schedule diagnostic tests
Determine medication dosages
Calculate fluid requirements

Correct answer: Identify patients at risk of clinical deterioration

MEWS is a bedside assessment tool that uses physiological parameters to identify patients at risk of clinical deterioration.

Question 120: The anatomical plane that divides the body into left and right halves is the:

Transverse plane
Coronal plane
Oblique plane
Sagittal plane (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sagittal plane

The sagittal (midsagittal or median) plane divides the body into left and right portions.

Question 121: When performing CPR on an adult, what is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio?

20:2
30:2 (Correct answer)
5:1
15:1

Correct answer: 30:2

Current AHA guidelines recommend a 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR.

Question 122: Which federal agency has primary regulatory authority over in vitro diagnostic devices and reagents used in medical laboratory testing?

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
Food and Drug Administration (FDA) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

The FDA regulates medical devices, including in vitro diagnostic (IVD) devices and reagents, under the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. The CDC provides guidance, OSHA governs workplace safety, and CMS administers CLIA certification — but device approval falls under the FDA.

Question 123: When a medical technician suspects a patient is being abused, what is the appropriate action?

Report the suspicion to the appropriate supervisor or mandated authority (Correct answer)
Keep the information confidential to respect patient privacy
Confront the suspected abuser directly
Document the concern privately without reporting

Correct answer: Report the suspicion to the appropriate supervisor or mandated authority

Medical technicians are often mandatory reporters who must report suspected abuse to supervisors or appropriate authorities as required by law.

Question 124: When performing a 12-lead ECG, where is lead V1 placed?

Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line
Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border
Second intercostal space, right sternal border
Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fourth intercostal space, right sternal border

Lead V1 is placed at the fourth intercostal space at the right sternal border.

Question 125: A patient has a respiratory rate of 26 breaths/min. This is documented as:

Tachypnea (Correct answer)
Hyperpnea
Apnea
Bradypnea

Correct answer: Tachypnea

Tachypnea is defined as a respiratory rate above 20 breaths per minute in adults.

Question 126: A patient's call light is sounding. The medical technician enters the room and finds the patient standing at the bedside with IV tubing tangled around their feet. The PRIORITY action is to:

Page the nurse and wait outside the room for instructions
Untangle the IV tubing first to prevent dislodgement
Ensure the patient's safety and prevent a fall before addressing the tubing (Correct answer)
Ask the patient to return to bed immediately without assistance

Correct answer: Ensure the patient's safety and prevent a fall before addressing the tubing

Patient safety is always the first priority. The technician should stabilize the patient to prevent a fall and call for help simultaneously. Addressing equipment concerns is secondary to preventing injury.

Question 127: Which anatomical term describes a position closer to the point of attachment on the body?

Proximal (Correct answer)
Lateral
Inferior
Distal

Correct answer: Proximal

Proximal describes a position nearer to the point of origin or attachment, while distal is farther away.

Question 128: Which of the following is an example of 'non-maleficence' in medical technology practice?

Educating the patient about preventive care
Reporting accurate test results to prevent inappropriate treatment (Correct answer)
Ensuring the patient can afford their medication
Advocating for the patient's insurance coverage

Correct answer: Reporting accurate test results to prevent inappropriate treatment

Non-maleficence means 'do no harm'—reporting accurate results prevents harm from incorrect diagnoses or inappropriate treatments.

Question 129: What does the principle of 'beneficence' require of medical technicians?

To avoid causing harm to patients
To respect patient autonomy
To treat all patients equally
To act in the best interest of the patient (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To act in the best interest of the patient

Beneficence requires healthcare workers to actively promote patient well-being and act in their best interest.

Question 130: A CMT is administering several medications to a resident and understands that most of them will be filtered out of the bloodstream and excreted. Which organ is the primary site for filtering blood and eliminating most drugs from the body?

Spleen
Kidneys (Correct answer)
Bladder
Liver

Correct answer: Kidneys

The kidneys are the main organs of the urinary system that filter waste products, excess water, and drugs from the blood to create urine. Proper kidney function is crucial for drug clearance.

Question 131: Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) regulate:

Hospital construction standards
Nurse staffing ratios
Laboratory testing quality and accuracy (Correct answer)
Medication pricing

Correct answer: Laboratory testing quality and accuracy

CLIA regulations establish quality standards for all laboratory testing performed on human specimens to ensure accuracy and reliability.

Question 132: What does a pulse oximeter measure?

Heart rate only
Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (Correct answer)
Blood pressure
Carbon dioxide levels

Correct answer: Oxygen saturation of hemoglobin

A pulse oximeter uses light absorption to measure the percentage of hemoglobin saturated with oxygen (SpO2).

Question 133: The SOAP format for charting stands for:

Symptoms, Outcomes, Analysis, Protocol
Summary, Observation, Action, Prognosis
Signs, Objectives, Assessment, Procedure
Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan

SOAP notes organize documentation into Subjective (patient's complaints), Objective (measurable findings), Assessment (diagnosis), and Plan (treatment).

Question 134: When a charting error is made in a paper medical record, the correct procedure is to:

Remove the page and rewrite it
Completely black out the error with marker
Use correction fluid to cover the error
Draw a single line through the error, write 'error,' initial, and date (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Draw a single line through the error, write 'error,' initial, and date

The correct method is to draw a single line through the error so it remains legible, then write 'error,' initial, and date the correction.

Question 135: Which burn classification involves destruction of all skin layers including subcutaneous tissue?

Third-degree burn (Correct answer)
Second-degree burn
First-degree burn
Superficial partial-thickness burn

Correct answer: Third-degree burn

Third-degree (full-thickness) burns destroy the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous tissue, often appearing white, brown, or charred.

Question 136: When collecting a stool specimen for occult blood testing, the patient should avoid which food for 3 days before collection?

Red meat and raw broccoli (Correct answer)
White rice
Low-fat dairy products
White bread

Correct answer: Red meat and raw broccoli

Red meat contains hemoglobin, and certain raw vegetables contain peroxidases, both of which can cause false-positive guaiac-based occult blood tests.

Question 137: When taking a blood pressure reading, the first Korotkoff sound heard represents:

Diastolic pressure
Systolic pressure (Correct answer)
Mean arterial pressure
Pulse pressure

Correct answer: Systolic pressure

The first Korotkoff sound, a clear tapping noise, corresponds to the systolic blood pressure.

Question 138: Continuing education requirements for medical technicians serve to:

Reduce the number of certified professionals
Provide social networking opportunities only
Increase the cost of certification renewal
Ensure practitioners maintain current knowledge and skills throughout their career (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ensure practitioners maintain current knowledge and skills throughout their career

Continuing education ensures healthcare professionals stay current with evolving medical knowledge, technology, and best practices.

Question 139: A medical technician observes a patient in the 'supine' position. The patient is:

Sitting upright at 90 degrees
Lying face down
Lying on their side
Lying face up on their back (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lying face up on their back

Supine position means lying flat on the back with the face upward, commonly used for many procedures.

Question 140: When preparing a blood specimen for transport to a reference lab, which of the following is the most crucial piece of information to verify on the specimen label against the requisition form?

The type of insurance carrier.
At least two unique patient identifiers. (Correct answer)
The name of the ordering physician.
The time of collection.

Correct answer: At least two unique patient identifiers.

To prevent medical errors, it is a universal standard to use at least two unique patient identifiers (e.g., full name and date of birth, or medical record number) to confirm a patient's identity. This must be verified on both the specimen label and the requisition form before transport.

Question 141: For a severe arterial bleed, the primary initial control measure is:

Applying direct pressure with a clean cloth or bandage (Correct answer)
Applying ice packs to the wound
Elevating the limb only
Applying a tourniquet immediately

Correct answer: Applying direct pressure with a clean cloth or bandage

Direct pressure is the first-line intervention to control external hemorrhage before escalating to tourniquets.

Question 142: When donning full PPE, which item should be put on first?

Face mask or respirator
Eye protection
Gloves
Gown (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Gown

The gown should be donned first, followed by the mask/respirator, eye protection, and gloves last.

Question 143: What is the primary purpose of patient charting in medical procedures?

To document patient observations, procedures, and outcomes. (Correct answer)
To create a history for insurance purposes.
To track the financial costs of the procedure.
To maintain a record of all medical supplies used.

Correct answer: To document patient observations, procedures, and outcomes.

Patient charting is the systematic documentation of a patient's medical history, observations, procedures performed, and outcomes of care. Its primary purpose is to create a comprehensive, legal record that ensures continuity of care and effective communication among healthcare providers. Accurate charting is essential for tracking patient progress, making informed treatment decisions, and serving as a legal reference.

Question 144: During oxygen therapy via nasal cannula, what is the typical flow rate range?

6–10 L/min
1–6 L/min (Correct answer)
10–15 L/min
15–20 L/min

Correct answer: 1–6 L/min

Nasal cannula delivers oxygen at 1–6 L/min; higher flow rates are delivered via masks.

Question 145: A CMT is cleaning a resident's room after they have been discharged. The resident had a known infection with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff). Which type of product is essential for cleaning the environmental surfaces?

A bleach-based disinfectant or other sporicidal agent (Correct answer)
A standard alcohol-based sanitizer
An ammonia-based cleaning solution
A quaternary ammonium compound

Correct answer: A bleach-based disinfectant or other sporicidal agent

Clostridioides difficile forms spores that are resistant to standard disinfectants, including alcohol-based hand rubs and some hospital-grade cleaners. Therefore, a sporicidal agent, such as a bleach-based disinfectant, is required to effectively kill the spores and decontaminate the environment.

Question 146: A wound culture specimen should be collected from which area of the wound for the most accurate results?

The wound edge or surrounding skin
The exudate on the wound surface before cleansing
The deepest cleanest tissue at the wound base after cleansing (Correct answer)
Multiple swabs of all necrotic tissue

Correct answer: The deepest cleanest tissue at the wound base after cleansing

Collecting from the deepest viable tissue after surface cleansing avoids surface contaminants and identifies the true causative organisms rather than colonizing bacteria.

Question 147: Which level of disinfection is required for semicritical medical devices that contact mucous membranes?

Sterilization
High-level disinfection (Correct answer)
Low-level disinfection
Intermediate-level disinfection

Correct answer: High-level disinfection

Semicritical items that contact mucous membranes require high-level disinfection, which kills all microorganisms except high numbers of bacterial spores.

Question 148: Which body system does the term 'renal' refer to?

Urinary/kidney system (Correct answer)
Digestive system
Respiratory system
Cardiovascular system

Correct answer: Urinary/kidney system

Renal pertains to the kidneys; renal failure means the kidneys are not functioning properly.

Question 149: What is the correct positioning for a patient undergoing a lumbar puncture?

Lying on their back with knees to the chest.
Standing with hands on the hips.
Sitting upright with legs dangling.
Lying on their side with knees drawn up to the chest. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lying on their side with knees drawn up to the chest.

For a lumbar puncture, the correct positioning is lying on their side with knees drawn up to the chest, often referred to as the fetal position. This specific posture helps to maximize the space between the vertebrae in the lumbar region. Widening these intervertebral spaces makes it easier and safer for the healthcare provider to insert the needle into the subarachnoid space, facilitating the procedure.

Question 150: A patient's blood glucose reading is 45 mg/dL. This indicates:

Normal blood glucose
Hypoglycemia (Correct answer)
Hyperglycemia
Diabetes mellitus

Correct answer: Hypoglycemia

A blood glucose of 45 mg/dL is significantly below normal (70-100 mg/dL fasting) and indicates hypoglycemia requiring immediate treatment.

Question 151: An abnormally low platelet count is termed:

Thrombocytopenia (Correct answer)
Anemia
Neutropenia
Leukopenia

Correct answer: Thrombocytopenia

Thrombocytopenia refers to a platelet count below the normal range, typically under 150,000/μL.

CMT — Certified Medical Technician Exam

The Certified Medical Technician (CMT) exam validates competency in clinical procedures, patient care, pharmacology, medical terminology, infection control, and regulatory compliance for entry-level medical technicians.

150

Questions

150 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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