CMT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CMT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which of the following rhythms would be MOST concerning in a patient who is 100% pacemaker-dependent? → Pacemaker spikes without capture (failure to capture)
2. A patient receiving IV potassium replacement is on continuous cardiac monitoring. The CMT should monitor for: → Peaked T waves and widened QRS
3. A patient on telemetry walks into an elevator. What is the expected effect on the telemetry signal? → Signal may be lost or severely degraded due to shielding by metal structure
4. How should a CMT professional handle a situation where quality assurance & performance improvement protocols conflict with practical constraints? → Document the conflict and seek guidance from appropriate authorities
5. Which of the following is a common symptom of cardiac arrhythmia? → Dizziness and palpitations.
6. What is a common challenge professionals face when applying quality assurance & performance improvement principles in Certified Cardiac Monitor Technician? → Balancing theoretical knowledge with practical application
7. Which quality improvement method is most applicable to professional ethics & legal compliance in Certified Cardiac Monitor Technician? → Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) continuous improvement cycle
8. What is the main treatment for atrial fibrillation in many cases? → Rate control and anticoagulation therapy.
9. How does continuing education relate to professional ethics & legal compliance for CMT certified professionals? → It ensures professionals stay current with evolving standards and best practices
10. What is the primary function of the chordae tendineae? → Prevent AV valve leaflets from prolapsing into the atria
11. Which of the following best describes a bundle branch block on an ECG? → QRS duration ≥0.12 sec with aberrant morphology
12. A cardiac monitor alarm for 'leads off' is triggered. What is the FIRST step the monitor technician should take? → Visually assess the patient and check electrode/lead wire connections
13. On a rhythm strip, a pacemaker spike is visible but is NOT followed by a P wave or QRS complex. This is called: → Failure to capture
14. High-quality CPR is BEST defined as: → Compressions at 100–120/min, depth ≥2 inches, full recoil, minimal interruptions
15. What is the typical ventricular rate in untreated atrial flutter with 2:1 conduction? → 150 bpm
16. What is the significance of a 'pacemaker spike' artifact on an ECG? → It represents the electrical pulse delivered by the pacemaker generator
17. Which electrolyte imbalance most significantly increases a patient's risk of digoxin toxicity? → Hypokalemia
18. During a code, the CMT observes the rhythm change from VF to a slow wide-complex rhythm. The team should be informed that this may represent: → Agonal rhythm (idioventricular) suggesting poor perfusion
19. Which technology trend is most likely to impact communication & interprofessional collaboration in the CMT field in coming years? → Digital tools for enhanced data collection, analysis, and reporting
20. What is the primary advantage of a DDD pacemaker over a VVI pacemaker? → It maintains AV synchrony by pacing both chambers
21. Which quality improvement method is most applicable to communication & interprofessional collaboration in Certified Cardiac Monitor Technician? → Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) continuous improvement cycle
22. When a cardiac monitor technician identifies ventricular fibrillation on a remote telemetry unit, the FIRST action is to: → Notify the bedside nurse or charge nurse immediately
23. Which of the following is used to monitor a patient's heart rate during cardiac monitoring? → Electrocardiogram (ECG).
24. What does a pulse oximeter measure? → Oxygen saturation levels.
25. What does the term 'lower rate limit' refer to in pacemaker programming? → The slowest rate at which the pacemaker will allow the heart to fall before pacing
26. In a hardwire monitoring system, the maximum patient mobility is determined by: → The length of the patient cable connecting the patient to the monitor
27. IV lidocaine is used in the acute management of which condition? → Ventricular arrhythmias
28. Which arrhythmia is characterized by a rapid and irregular heart rate, often over 100 bpm? → Atrial fibrillation.
29. A patient's ECG shows flattened T waves and prominent U waves. Which electrolyte abnormality does this most suggest? → Hypokalemia
30. When implementing communication & interprofessional collaboration practices, what should a CMT professional prioritize first? → Compliance with established standards and protocols