Certified Hazardous Materials Manager (CHMM) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: When evaluating the toxicity of a contaminant mixture at a Superfund site, EPA typically applies what approach to combine individual chemical risks?

Using only the highest single-chemical risk
Risk multiplication
Hazard quotient addition (hazard index) for non-carcinogens and risk addition for carcinogens (Correct answer)
Geometric mean of individual risks

Correct answer: Hazard quotient addition (hazard index) for non-carcinogens and risk addition for carcinogens

The hazard index sums individual hazard quotients for non-carcinogens, and individual cancer risks are summed for carcinogens, giving a cumulative mixture risk estimate.

Question 2: During a pump-and-treat operation, 'asymptotic tailing' refers to which phenomenon?

Rapid contaminant removal in the early phase
Contaminant concentrations leveling off at low but persistent levels (Correct answer)
Groundwater mounding beneath the extraction wells
Concentrations declining quickly to non-detect levels

Correct answer: Contaminant concentrations leveling off at low but persistent levels

Asymptotic tailing occurs when dissolved contaminant concentrations drop steeply at first but then flatten at persistently low levels due to back-diffusion or NAPL dissolution.

Question 3: What is the primary reason that oxidizers must be stored separately from flammable and combustible materials?

Oxidizers produce corrosive vapors that degrade flammable material containers
Both classes carry the same DOT placard, causing labeling confusion
Oxidizers lower the flash point of nearby flammable liquids
Oxidizers supply oxygen that can intensify or initiate combustion of nearby flammables (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Oxidizers supply oxygen that can intensify or initiate combustion of nearby flammables

Oxidizers release oxygen, which can dramatically accelerate combustion and turn otherwise manageable fires into severe hazards when flammables are nearby.

Question 4: Which enforcement tool allows EPA to issue an order requiring immediate compliance with RCRA requirements without going to court?

Compliance schedule order
Administrative compliance order (ACO) (Correct answer)
Notice of violation
Consent decree

Correct answer: Administrative compliance order (ACO)

EPA can issue administrative compliance orders under RCRA Section 3008 directing violators to take corrective action without the need for court proceedings.

Question 5: Under EPA's Superfund removal action authority, what is the maximum expenditure allowed for a standard removal action before a remedial action must be initiated?

$5 million
$10 million
$2 million (Correct answer)
$1 million

Correct answer: $2 million

CERCLA limits standard removal actions to $2 million and 12 months unless the EPA Administrator determines that additional action is necessary.

Question 6: Which recovery consideration is most critical in the immediate aftermath of a hazmat spill involving water-reactive materials?

Notifying shareholders of potential financial liability
Confirming insurance coverage before cleanup begins
Activating mutual aid agreements with neighboring jurisdictions
Ensuring no water is used in decontamination or cleanup operations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ensuring no water is used in decontamination or cleanup operations

Water-reactive substances can produce toxic gases, fires, or explosions when contacted with water, making water exclusion critical during cleanup.

Question 7: Under 49 CFR, a carrier must report a hazmat incident to PHMSA within how many hours if it results in a fatality?

Within 24 hours by telephone
Within 48 hours by written report
Within 12 hours by telephone (Correct answer)
Within 72 hours by telephone

Correct answer: Within 12 hours by telephone

49 CFR 171.15 requires immediate telephone notification (within 12 hours) to the PHMSA Emergency Operations Center for incidents involving a fatality.

Question 8: A maintenance team must enter a large storage tank to perform an inspection. The tank is considered a permit-required confined space. The entry supervisor has conducted atmospheric testing and all conditions are acceptable. According to 29 CFR 1910.146, what is a critical prerequisite before any authorized entrant can enter the space?

All rescue equipment must be staged at least 50 feet away from the entry point.
The attendant must first enter the space to ensure it is safe.
A written entry permit, completed and signed by the entry supervisor, must be posted at the entrance. (Correct answer)
The entrant must have completed initial confined space training within the last 3 years.

Correct answer: A written entry permit, completed and signed by the entry supervisor, must be posted at the entrance.

OSHA's standard for Permit-Required Confined Spaces, 29 CFR 1910.146, mandates the use of a written permit system to control entry. The permit verifies that pre-entry checks have been completed and specifies acceptable entry conditions. It must be completed and signed before entry is authorized and made available at the time of entry to all authorized entrants.

Question 9: An employee receives a whole-body radiation dose of 5 rem in a single calendar year from occupational exposure. This is:

Below the NRC limit but above the ALARA goal
Above the NRC limit requiring immediate investigation
An acceptable dose with no recordkeeping required
At the NRC annual occupational dose limit for whole-body exposure (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At the NRC annual occupational dose limit for whole-body exposure

NRC regulations (10 CFR 20) set the annual occupational whole-body dose limit at 5 rem (50 mSv), so 5 rem is exactly at the regulatory limit.

Question 10: A CHMM provides expert testimony in litigation involving hazardous waste contamination. Which ethical principle is most directly implicated?

Objectivity and truthfulness when providing professional opinions (Correct answer)
Prohibition on working for regulatory agencies
Requirement to obtain IHMM pre-approval for all testimony
Confidentiality of client financial records

Correct answer: Objectivity and truthfulness when providing professional opinions

Providing expert testimony requires the CHMM to be objective and truthful, a core ethical obligation that supersedes advocacy for any party.

Question 11: A TSDF's closure plan must address all of the following EXCEPT:

Disposition of all hazardous waste on-site
Financial assurance for post-closure care
Annual financial audits submitted to EPA (Correct answer)
Decontamination of equipment and structures

Correct answer: Annual financial audits submitted to EPA

Closure plans must address waste disposition, decontamination, and financial assurance, but do not require annual financial audits to EPA during closure.

Question 12: A worker is required to wear a tight-fitting, air-purifying respirator when handling a specific volatile chemical. According to OSHA's Respiratory Protection Standard (29 CFR 1910.134), which of the following must the employer provide for the worker BEFORE they are fit-tested and required to use the respirator?

Hazmat technician level training under HAZWOPER.
A copy of the facility's emergency action plan.
A medical evaluation to determine their fitness to wear a respirator. (Correct answer)
Annual audiometric testing for hearing conservation.

Correct answer: A medical evaluation to determine their fitness to wear a respirator.

OSHA's standard 29 CFR 1910.134(e) requires employers to provide a medical evaluation to determine an employee's ability to use a respirator before the employee is fit-tested or required to use the respirator in the workplace. This evaluation, performed by a physician or other licensed health care professional (PLHCP), ensures the worker can handle the physiological burden of wearing a respirator.

Question 13: A facility generates a waste solvent mixture containing trichloroethylene (TCE). Under RCRA, this waste would most likely be classified as which type of listed hazardous waste?

F001 (Correct answer)
U001
P030
K051

Correct answer: F001

F001 covers spent halogenated solvents including TCE used in degreasing operations.

Question 14: Under RCRA, what is the required aisle space between containers in a hazardous waste storage area?

No specific width is required, only that containers can be visually inspected
At least 6 feet to accommodate emergency equipment
At least 2 feet wide to allow inspection and emergency access (Correct answer)
At least 30 inches as specified by OSHA fire code

Correct answer: At least 2 feet wide to allow inspection and emergency access

40 CFR 265.35 requires that sufficient aisle space be maintained to allow unobstructed movement of personnel and emergency equipment, and EPA guidance specifies at least 2-foot aisles.

Question 15: A hazardous waste facility's contingency plan must designate an Emergency Coordinator. Under 40 CFR 264.55, during an emergency, the Emergency Coordinator must notify which entity first?

The facility's corporate headquarters
The State environmental agency
The National Response Center (NRC) (Correct answer)
The Local Emergency Planning Committee (LEPC)

Correct answer: The National Response Center (NRC)

The Emergency Coordinator must immediately notify the National Response Center of any release that could threaten human health or the environment.

Question 16: A facility stores both regulated medical waste and RCRA hazardous waste. Which statement about commingling these waste streams is correct?

Commingling is permitted in satellite accumulation areas but not in 90-day storage areas
Mixing regulated medical waste with RCRA hazardous waste makes the entire mixture subject to RCRA hazardous waste regulations (Correct answer)
Medical waste regulations supersede RCRA, so RCRA standards apply only to the hazardous portion
Commingling is allowed if a single manifest covers all materials

Correct answer: Mixing regulated medical waste with RCRA hazardous waste makes the entire mixture subject to RCRA hazardous waste regulations

If regulated medical waste is mixed with RCRA hazardous waste, the mixture is regulated as RCRA hazardous waste and all RCRA storage requirements apply.

Question 17: SARA Title III is also known by what common name?

Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA) (Correct answer)
Pollution Prevention Act
Comprehensive Environmental Response Act
Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response

Correct answer: Emergency Planning and Community Right-to-Know Act (EPCRA)

SARA Title III is commonly called EPCRA and requires facilities to report chemical hazards and releases to support local emergency planning.

Question 18: Within the Incident Command System (ICS), which General Staff section is responsible for conducting tactical operations to carry out the Incident Action Plan, such as performing spill containment and rescue activities?

Logistics Section
Finance/Administration Section
Planning Section
Operations Section (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Operations Section

The Operations Section is responsible for the direct management of all incident-related tactical activities. This section develops the tactical assignments and directs all tactical resources to carry out the objectives developed in the Incident Action Plan.

Question 19: In a heat stress program, WBGT (Wet Bulb Globe Temperature) is used because it accounts for:

Temperature, humidity, radiant heat, and air movement simultaneously (Correct answer)
Chemical toxicity thresholds at elevated temperatures
Core body temperature of exposed workers
Only dry bulb temperature and relative humidity

Correct answer: Temperature, humidity, radiant heat, and air movement simultaneously

WBGT integrates natural wet bulb (humidity), globe thermometer (radiant heat), and dry bulb (air temperature) to reflect actual thermal stress on the body.

Question 20: Which hazard analysis technique uses a systematic 'what if' questioning approach structured around guide words like NO, MORE, LESS, and REVERSE?

Hazard and Operability Study (HAZOP) (Correct answer)
Fault Tree Analysis (FTA)
Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA)
Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PrHA)

Correct answer: Hazard and Operability Study (HAZOP)

HAZOP uses standardized guide words applied to process parameters to systematically identify deviations from design intent that could create hazards.

Question 21: A facility stores 15,000 lbs of a listed toxic substance above its EPCRA Section 302 threshold. Which action is required annually?

File a RCRA Biennial Report
Submit a TRI Form R report only
Submit a Tier II emergency and hazardous chemical inventory report (Correct answer)
Conduct an OSHA Process Safety Management audit

Correct answer: Submit a Tier II emergency and hazardous chemical inventory report

EPCRA Section 312 requires facilities exceeding threshold planning quantities to submit annual Tier II inventory reports to LEPC, SERC, and local fire department.

Question 22: Which EPCRA section requires facilities to submit Tier I or Tier II emergency and hazardous chemical inventory reports?

Section 304
Section 311/312 (Correct answer)
Section 302
Section 313

Correct answer: Section 311/312

EPCRA Sections 311 and 312 require facilities to report hazardous chemical inventories to SERCs, LEPCs, and local fire departments.

Question 23: Green chemistry principles focus primarily on:

Establishing green-labeled disposal facilities certified by the EPA
Designing chemical products and processes to reduce or eliminate hazardous substances (Correct answer)
Accelerating the cleanup of brownfield sites using bioremediation
Replacing synthetic chemicals with naturally derived alternatives in all applications

Correct answer: Designing chemical products and processes to reduce or eliminate hazardous substances

Green chemistry, as articulated by Paul Anastas and John Warner, centers on designing chemicals and processes that minimize hazard and waste at the molecular level.

Question 24: The Oil Pollution Act of 1990 (OPA 90) primarily applies to spills of oil into which environment?

Groundwater aquifers only
Hazardous waste landfills
Publicly owned treatment works
Navigable waters and adjoining shorelines (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Navigable waters and adjoining shorelines

OPA 90 addresses liability, compensation, and cleanup of oil spills into navigable waters, along shorelines, and in the exclusive economic zone.

Question 25: Which document formally records the deed restriction or land use control (LUC) placed on a remediated property to limit future land use?

Environmental covenant or deed restriction (Correct answer)
Notice of violation
Brownfields assessment report
Remedial action plan

Correct answer: Environmental covenant or deed restriction

An environmental covenant or deed restriction is recorded with the property deed to legally restrict land use and protect the integrity of the remedy.

Question 26: What is the primary purpose of the Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA)?

Evaluate and control risks from existing and new chemicals in commerce (Correct answer)
Establish worker right-to-know requirements
Set cleanup standards for contaminated soil
Regulate transportation of hazardous materials

Correct answer: Evaluate and control risks from existing and new chemicals in commerce

TSCA gives EPA authority to require reporting, recordkeeping, and testing of chemical substances and to restrict those that pose unreasonable risks.

Question 27: Which medical surveillance requirement applies to workers regularly exposed to inorganic lead above the action level?

Audiometric testing and vision screening
Urinalysis and liver enzyme panels quarterly
Blood lead level (BLL) monitoring and biological exposure index testing (Correct answer)
Annual chest X-ray and pulmonary function test

Correct answer: Blood lead level (BLL) monitoring and biological exposure index testing

OSHA's lead standard (29 CFR 1910.1025) requires blood lead level monitoring and medical removal protection when BLLs exceed trigger thresholds.

Question 28: Which section of the Hazardous Materials Table (49 CFR 172.101) provides the special provisions applicable to a material?

Column 7 (Correct answer)
Column 9
Column 3
Column 5

Correct answer: Column 7

Column 7 of the Hazardous Materials Table lists the special provision numbers that modify or supplement general requirements for that specific material.

Question 29: When transporting hazardous materials by vessel, which international code governs the segregation requirements?

ADR Agreement
IMDG Code (Correct answer)
RID Regulations
IATA DGR

Correct answer: IMDG Code

The International Maritime Dangerous Goods (IMDG) Code governs the transport of hazardous materials by sea, including segregation requirements.

Question 30: Heat stroke is distinguished from heat exhaustion primarily by:

Loss of thermoregulation and elevated core body temperature above 104°F (40°C) (Correct answer)
Muscle cramps and normal mental status
Heavy sweating and cool, moist skin
Mild headache with body temperature below 102°F

Correct answer: Loss of thermoregulation and elevated core body temperature above 104°F (40°C)

Heat stroke is a medical emergency characterized by thermoregulatory failure, core temp >104°F, and often altered mental status.

Certified Hazardous Materials Manager (CHMM)

The CHMM examination, administered by the Institute of Hazardous Materials Management (IHMM), evaluates minimal competency in hazardous materials management across 12 content domains covering planning, transportation, storage, regulatory compliance, remediation, and health and safety. Candidates must achieve a scaled score of 700 out of 1000 to earn certification.

140

Questions

180 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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