Trauma Assessment & Prehospital Interventions Flashcards
7 cards from real CEP practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Trauma Assessment & Prehospital Interventions flashcards as text
A trauma patient has a GCS of 6 (E1V2M3) with unequal pupils. The MOST appropriate airway management is:
Answer: Rapid sequence intubation with inline spinal stabilization
GCS ≤8 with signs of herniation (unequal pupils) requires definitive airway management via RSI while maintaining spinal precautions.
Which of the following BEST describes 'damage control resuscitation' in prehospital trauma care?
Answer: Limiting crystalloids, targeting permissive hypotension, and preferring blood products
Damage control resuscitation minimizes crystalloids, accepts lower-than-normal BP, and when available, uses blood products to restore coagulation capacity.
A 22-year-old is shot in the neck (Zone II). He is anxious, hoarse, and has expanding subcutaneous emphysema. Which airway intervention is MOST appropriate?
Answer: Early orotracheal intubation before progressive airway edema occludes the airway
Expanding hematoma and emphysema signal impending airway loss; early orotracheal intubation is preferred before anatomy is distorted.
During transport of a head-injured patient with suspected elevated ICP, you should position the patient:
Answer: Head elevated 30 degrees with the spine inline
30-degree head-of-bed elevation promotes cerebral venous drainage and reduces ICP while maintaining spinal precautions with the spine kept neutral.
Which finding on scene size-up MOST suggests a patient involved in a blast injury may have a primary blast injury?
Answer: Perforated tympanic membranes and respiratory distress
Tympanic membrane rupture and pulmonary blast injury are classic primary blast injuries caused directly by the overpressure wave.
A 35-year-old trauma patient in cardiac arrest has PEA on the monitor. Which reversible cause should be addressed FIRST in the prehospital setting?
Answer: Tension pneumothorax — perform bilateral needle decompression
Tension pneumothorax is the most rapidly reversible and common cause of traumatic PEA arrest, and bilateral needle decompression should occur immediately.
You apply a traction splint to a mid-shaft femur fracture. Which finding MOST indicates the splint is correctly applied and effective?
Answer: Decreased pain, limb length equalized, and neurovascular status intact
Correct traction splint application reduces pain by countering muscle spasm, restores approximate limb length, and must preserve distal neurovascular status.