CEN Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CEN facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A cirrhotic patient presents with confusion, asterixis, and jaundice. The nurse anticipates which primary diagnosis? → Hepatic encephalopathy
2. A client's penetrating abdominal injuries has resulted in hypovolemia. What is the best procedure for resuscitating fluids quickly? → large bore peripheral IV
3. A patient is intubated and the ventilator alarms for high peak airway pressure. Breath sounds are absent on the left. What is the most likely cause? → Right mainstem intubation
4. Which of the following is the correct sequence for synchronized cardioversion in a hemodynamically unstable patient with atrial flutter? → 50–100 J biphasic → increase if needed
5. Intussusception most commonly occurs at which anatomical location? → Ileocecal valve (ileocolic)
6. Which assessment is CONTRAINDICATED in a patient with suspected placenta previa? → Digital cervical examination
7. Which intervention is the HIGHEST priority for a patient presenting with status epilepticus lasting more than 5 minutes? → Administer IV benzodiazepine immediately
8. Which Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score indicates the need for definitive airway management? → GCS 8 or less
9. Which size endotracheal tube is appropriate for a 5-year-old undergoing emergency intubation? → 4.5–5.0 mm cuffed or uncuffed
10. A patient with chest pain has a 12-lead ECG showing ST depression in V1–V4. Which condition should be considered first? → Posterior MI
11. A patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) is being managed. Which intervention is most appropriate as a temporizing measure? → Elevate head of bed to 30 degrees and hyperventilate to PaCO2 35 mmHg
12. A patient is brought in post-lightning strike and is pulseless. Which finding is unique to lightning injury compared to other cardiac arrest etiologies? → Asystole is the most common arrest rhythm
13. Which type of traumatic brain injury is associated with a 'lucid interval' followed by rapid deterioration? → Epidural hematoma
14. Which formula is used to estimate the endotracheal tube size for a child between ages 1 and 10? → (Age / 4) + 4
15. A patient presents with sudden-onset dyspnea and unilateral leg swelling. Wells score is 6. What is the next step? → CT pulmonary angiography
16. A patient presents with priapism following recreational drug use. Which drug class is most commonly associated with this condition? → Cocaine and other stimulants
17. A patient has a suspected tension pneumothorax in the field. What is the prehospital treatment? → Needle thoracostomy at the 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line
18. When should cardiopulmonary resuscitation in a pregnant patient include lateral uterine displacement? → After 20 weeks gestation or when the uterus is palpable at the umbilicus
19. Which ventilator strategy is recommended to reduce lung injury in ARDS patients? → Tidal volume of 6 mL/kg ideal body weight with permissive hypercapnia
20. A patient presents with altered mental status, fever, muscle rigidity, and clonus after starting a new antidepressant. What condition should be suspected? → Serotonin syndrome
21. A patient is in pulseless ventricular tachycardia. After the second defibrillation attempt, which medication should be given? → Amiodarone 300 mg IV push
22. Which medication is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia with hypotension in a stable patient? → Atropine
23. Which assessment finding indicates a class III hemorrhagic shock (estimated blood loss 1500–2000 mL)? → Heart rate 120–140, decreased BP, confused, decreased urine output
24. A postpartum patient (1 hour after delivery) develops heavy vaginal bleeding with a boggy, enlarged uterus. What is the priority intervention? → Uterine massage and oxytocin administration
25. A 2-year-old presents with sudden onset barky cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever. What is the most likely diagnosis? → Croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)
26. Which of the following is a contraindication to administering IV tPA for acute ischemic stroke? → Recent ischemic stroke within the last 3 months
27. A patient with suspected hyperkalemia (K+ 7.1 mEq/L) and peaked T waves on ECG is being treated. What is the priority first intervention? → Administer calcium gluconate IV
28. A patient with sickle cell disease presents with fever of 38.9°C, chest pain, and a new pulmonary infiltrate on CXR. This presentation is most consistent with: → Acute chest syndrome
29. What is the drug of choice to prevent and treat seizures in eclampsia? → Magnesium sulfate 4–6 g loading dose IV
30. Which lab value is most indicative of rhabdomyolysis requiring aggressive IV fluid resuscitation? → Elevated creatine kinase (CK)