NCLEX-RN (National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A 16-year-old cystic fibrosis adolescent is admitted with worsening breathlessness and potential pneumonia. Which nursing task must be included in the patient's care the most?

Perform postural drainage and chest physiotherapy every 4 hours. (Correct answer)
Place the patient in a private room to decrease the risk of further infection.
Allow the patient to decide whether she needs aerosolized medications.
Plan activities to allow at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep.

Correct answer: Perform postural drainage and chest physiotherapy every 4 hours.

For people with cystic fibrosis, airway clearance procedures are essential and should come first. Mucus dehydrates as a result of the Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Conductance Regulator deficiency. In cystic fibrosis, the secretions are typically thick, gooey, and more challenging to remove. Both the treatment of acute exacerbations and the maintenance of health in cystic fibrosis depend heavily on frequent airway clearance.

Question 2: The nurse is about to administer a medication and the patient states, 'That pill looks different than usual.' What is the nurse's priority action?

Hold the medication and verify the order (Correct answer)
Ask the charge nurse to administer it instead
Document the patient's concern and proceed
Reassure the patient and administer the medication

Correct answer: Hold the medication and verify the order

Patient statements about medication appearance are a safety cue; the nurse must hold and verify before administering.

Question 3: Which assessment finding indicates a complication of a plaster (non-fiberglass) cast requiring immediate notification of the provider?

Pallor, pulselessness, and pain distal to the cast (Correct answer)
Warmth over the cast for the first 24 hours during drying
Capillary refill of 2 seconds distal to the cast
Mild itching under the cast

Correct answer: Pallor, pulselessness, and pain distal to the cast

Pallor, pulselessness, and pain are signs of acute compartment syndrome or neurovascular compromise, a surgical emergency.

Question 4: A patient receiving a blood transfusion develops fever, chills, and flank pain 15 minutes after starting the infusion. What is the priority nursing action?

Continue the transfusion and monitor vital signs every 15 minutes
Slow the infusion rate and administer antipyretics
Administer diphenhydramine and restart the transfusion
Stop the transfusion, maintain IV access with normal saline, and notify the physician (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Stop the transfusion, maintain IV access with normal saline, and notify the physician

These signs suggest an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate cessation of the transfusion.

Question 5: A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a patient. Which assessment finding should prompt the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?

Blood pressure of 118/76 mmHg
Apical pulse of 58 bpm (Correct answer)
Temperature of 98.8°F
Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min

Correct answer: Apical pulse of 58 bpm

Digoxin should be withheld if the apical pulse is below 60 bpm in adults, as bradycardia may indicate toxicity.

Question 6: A patient's ABG results are: pH 7.28, PaCO2 52 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. What is the correct interpretation?

Respiratory alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis (Correct answer)
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: Respiratory acidosis

Elevated PaCO2 with low pH and normal HCO3 indicates uncompensated respiratory acidosis.

Question 7: A patient with borderline personality disorder engages in 'splitting' on the inpatient unit, telling one nurse that they are the 'best nurse' while stating another nurse is 'terrible.' The appropriate nursing response is to:

Document the behavior and avoid further interaction to prevent escalation
Validate the patient's positive feedback and address the complaint about the other nurse
Communicate consistently with the entire nursing team and maintain uniform boundaries (Correct answer)
Reassure the patient and try to improve the therapeutic relationship with the 'terrible' nurse

Correct answer: Communicate consistently with the entire nursing team and maintain uniform boundaries

Splitting is managed by maintaining consistency across all staff through regular team communication and uniform limit-setting.

Question 8: A patient with a history of COPD is admitted with an acute exacerbation. The nurse notes an SpO2 of 85% and respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min. What is the priority nursing action?

Apply supplemental oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula and reassess (Correct answer)
Obtain an ABG and wait for results before intervening
Administer oxygen at 100% via non-rebreather mask immediately
Prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation

Correct answer: Apply supplemental oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula and reassess

COPD patients depend on hypoxic drive; low-flow oxygen (1–2 L/min) corrects dangerous hypoxemia without suppressing respiratory drive.

Question 9: Which electrolyte imbalance increases a patient's risk for digoxin toxicity?

Hypokalemia (Correct answer)
Hypernatremia
Hyperkalemia
Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: Hypokalemia

Hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity because low potassium levels increase myocardial sensitivity to the drug.

Question 10: Which principle of the Five Rights of Delegation addresses whether the environment is appropriate for the task to be safely performed?

Right task
Right person
Right circumstance (Correct answer)
Right supervision

Correct answer: Right circumstance

The Right Circumstance evaluates whether the setting, resources, and patient condition make it safe and appropriate to delegate the task.

Question 11: A nurse is teaching a patient about diaphragmatic breathing. Which instruction is correct?

Breathe rapidly and shallowly to maximize oxygen intake
Inhale through the mouth and exhale through the nose
Hold each breath for at least 10 seconds before exhaling
Place one hand on the chest and one on the abdomen; the abdomen should rise more (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Place one hand on the chest and one on the abdomen; the abdomen should rise more

In diaphragmatic breathing, abdominal rise should predominate over chest rise, indicating proper use of the diaphragm.

Question 12: A nurse is caring for a patient who is NPO (nothing by mouth) before surgery. The patient asks for a sip of water. What is the nurse's best response?

Contact the surgeon to revise the NPO order
Allow a small sip since water is clear and will not affect anesthesia
Offer ice chips as a compromise
Deny the request and explain that NPO restrictions reduce aspiration risk during anesthesia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Deny the request and explain that NPO restrictions reduce aspiration risk during anesthesia

NPO status is maintained to minimize gastric contents and reduce the risk of aspiration pneumonia during anesthesia.

Question 13: A nurse is conducting a community needs assessment using a windshield survey. What does this method involve?

Conducting structured interviews with community leaders
Systematically observing a community by driving or walking through it to gather data (Correct answer)
Distributing health questionnaires to community households
Reviewing health department statistics and hospital discharge data

Correct answer: Systematically observing a community by driving or walking through it to gather data

A windshield survey is a systematic, observational assessment of a community conducted from a vehicle or on foot to evaluate the physical and social environment.

Question 14: A nurse suspects a colleague is diverting controlled substances. What is the nurse's most appropriate first action?

Document personal observations and wait to gather more evidence before reporting
Confront the colleague directly and privately
Contact the state board of nursing anonymously
Report the suspicion to the nurse manager or appropriate supervisor (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Report the suspicion to the nurse manager or appropriate supervisor

Reporting suspected diversion to the supervisor is the mandatory first step, as the institution must investigate to protect patients and the colleague.

Question 15: A nurse manager transferred an RN from the children unit to the telemetry unit. The RN was given charge of three patients. Which patient(s) from the list below shouldn't be given to the floating nurse?

A 4-year-old with VSD following cardiac catheterization
A 5-month-old with Kawasaki disease
A young infant after pyloromyotomy (Correct answer)
A 9-year-old child diagnosed with rheumatic fever

Correct answer: A young infant after pyloromyotomy

The nurse who was floated from the telemetry unit would not be well-equipped to care for a small child who has recently undergone GI surgery and needs a strict feeding schedule.

Question 16: Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, which action is permissible without patient authorization?

Providing records to a friend of the patient
Sharing records with an employer for job screening
Selling patient data to a pharmaceutical company
Disclosing PHI to law enforcement for a court order (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Disclosing PHI to law enforcement for a court order

HIPAA permits disclosure of PHI to law enforcement when required by a court order or subpoena.

Question 17: Which of the following tasks CANNOT be delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) by an RN?

Ambulating a stable postoperative patient in the hallway
Obtaining a routine set of vital signs on a stable patient
Measuring and recording urine output
Performing a focused respiratory assessment on a patient with new-onset shortness of breath (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Performing a focused respiratory assessment on a patient with new-onset shortness of breath

Assessment is a cognitive, clinical judgment task that falls exclusively within the RN scope of practice and cannot be delegated to UAP.

Question 18: A nurse is preparing to perform a sterile dressing change. Which action would contaminate the sterile field?

Opening sterile packages away from the body and dropping items onto the field
Reaching across the sterile field to retrieve an item on the opposite side (Correct answer)
Wearing sterile gloves before touching items on the sterile field
Placing sterile items at the edge of the sterile drape border

Correct answer: Reaching across the sterile field to retrieve an item on the opposite side

Reaching across a sterile field contaminates it because the nurse's arm passes over the field, which is not considered sterile.

Question 19: A nurse has five tasks to complete in the next hour. Which should be done LAST?

Administering a stat IV antibiotic for a patient with sepsis
Changing the dressing on a surgical wound that is due now
Providing discharge education to a patient leaving in 4 hours (Correct answer)
Responding to a patient whose call light is on for uncontrolled chest pain

Correct answer: Providing discharge education to a patient leaving in 4 hours

Discharge education for a patient leaving in 4 hours is the lowest urgency task among life-threatening and time-sensitive priorities.

Question 20: A nurse is prioritizing care using Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs. Which patient need should be addressed first?

A patient who is anxious about an upcoming surgery scheduled for tomorrow
A patient who requests a specific type of pillow for comfort
A patient with acute urinary retention causing significant pain and bladder distension (Correct answer)
A patient who feels isolated and wants visitors

Correct answer: A patient with acute urinary retention causing significant pain and bladder distension

Acute urinary retention is a physiological need causing physical harm and must be addressed before psychological or comfort needs.

Question 21: A patient at 28 weeks' gestation reports decreased fetal movement. The nurse instructs the patient to perform kick counts. Which finding should prompt the patient to contact the provider immediately?

Ten movements within the first 45 minutes
Fetal movement that increases after a snack
One brief episode of hiccups during counting
Fewer than 10 movements in 2 hours (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fewer than 10 movements in 2 hours

Fewer than 10 movements in a 2-hour window is the threshold that indicates decreased fetal activity and requires urgent provider evaluation.

Question 22: Under which circumstance is it appropriate to delegate a task to a licensed practical nurse (LPN)?

Performing the initial nursing assessment on a newly admitted patient
Evaluating the patient's response to a new pain management protocol
Developing a patient's individualized care plan
Administering a routine oral medication to a stable patient (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Administering a routine oral medication to a stable patient

Administering routine medications to stable patients is within the LPN scope of practice in most states and is an appropriate delegation.

Question 23: A patient is admitted with suspected meningitis. Which intervention should be completed first?

Obtain a lumbar puncture specimen
Administer prescribed IV antibiotics immediately
Complete blood culture specimens before starting antibiotics (Correct answer)
Perform a CT scan of the head

Correct answer: Complete blood culture specimens before starting antibiotics

Blood cultures must be drawn before antibiotic administration to maximize the chance of identifying the causative organism.

Question 24: A nurse manager notices consistent conflict between two staff RNs regarding patient assignments. What is the most appropriate first action?

Meet with both nurses individually to understand each perspective before facilitating a joint resolution (Correct answer)
Separate the nurses by assigning them to different shifts immediately
Ignore the situation and wait to see if it resolves on its own
Report both nurses to administration for disciplinary action

Correct answer: Meet with both nurses individually to understand each perspective before facilitating a joint resolution

Gathering each party's perspective individually is the first step in conflict resolution, allowing the manager to facilitate a fair, informed discussion.

Question 25: The ventilator of a patient sounds the high-pressure alarm. The oxygen saturation meter in the patient's room indicates 87% when you walk in to evaluate the ARDS patient, who is also having trouble sitting up. Which move ought to you make next?

Insert an oral airway to prevent the patient from biting on the endotracheal tube.
Increase the fraction of inspired oxygen on the ventilator to 100% in preparation for endotracheal suctioning.
Reassure the patient that the ventilator will do the work of breathing for him.
Manually ventilate the patient while assessing possible reasons for the high-pressure alarm. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Manually ventilate the patient while assessing possible reasons for the high-pressure alarm.

You can give the patient 100% FiO2 by manually ventilating them while you try to figure out what's causing the high-pressure alarm. Safe ventilation parameters for each patient and their conditions should be taken into account while using proper ventilation strategies with the BVM.

Question 26: A nurse suspects child physical abuse during an assessment. Which finding is most indicative of non-accidental trauma?

Multiple bruises in various stages of healing over the trunk (Correct answer)
A linear skull fracture after a documented fall from a crib
Mild bruising over the shins of an active toddler
A single spiral fracture of the tibia in an 8-year-old athlete

Correct answer: Multiple bruises in various stages of healing over the trunk

Multiple bruises in various stages of healing located on non-bony prominences such as the trunk are a hallmark of physical abuse, as accidental bruising typically occurs on bony prominences.

Question 27: The nurse is assessing a newborn at 1 minute of life. Heart rate is 90 bpm, respirations are slow and irregular, muscle tone is limp, grimace is a frown, and color is blue centrally. What is the APGAR score?

5
4
3 (Correct answer)
2

Correct answer: 3

HR <100=1, slow respirations=1, limp=0, grimace=1, blue centrally=0 totals an APGAR score of 3.

Question 28: A nurse is reviewing a patient's medication list and notes that warfarin and aspirin are both prescribed. What is the priority concern?

Risk of warfarin-induced nephropathy
Decreased anticoagulant effect of warfarin
Significantly increased risk of bleeding (Correct answer)
Development of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia

Correct answer: Significantly increased risk of bleeding

Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation while warfarin inhibits clotting factors; together they substantially raise bleeding risk.

Question 29: The nurse is preparing to use physical restraints on an agitated patient. Which action is most important before applying the restraints?

Obtain written informed consent from the patient
Obtain a provider order and attempt less restrictive alternatives first (Correct answer)
Apply the restraints immediately to prevent injury and call the provider afterward
Consult the ethics committee before proceeding

Correct answer: Obtain a provider order and attempt less restrictive alternatives first

Restraints are a last resort; a provider order is required, and less restrictive alternatives such as de-escalation and reorientation must be attempted first.

Question 30: A patient is admitted after a serious suicide attempt. After stabilization, the patient tells the nurse, 'I feel better now. I don't need to be here.' How should the nurse interpret this statement?

This is a normal response after a failed suicide attempt
The statement may indicate the patient has made a decision to complete the act and feels relief (Correct answer)
The patient has experienced genuine remission and may be ready for discharge
The patient is using manipulation to get an early discharge

Correct answer: The statement may indicate the patient has made a decision to complete the act and feels relief

Sudden calm or resolution of distress after a serious attempt can indicate the patient has accepted a plan and feels relieved of their burden—not improvement.

Question 31: A nurse receives a telephone order from a physician. Which is the BEST action to ensure accuracy?

Repeat the order back only if it involves a controlled substance
Write the order immediately and have the charge nurse cosign it
Ask the physician to enter the order directly into the electronic health record
Read back the complete order to the physician and document 'T.O. read back and verified' (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Read back the complete order to the physician and document 'T.O. read back and verified'

Reading back the entire order and documenting verification is the safest practice to prevent miscommunication errors with telephone orders.

Question 32: Over the course of the 12-hour shift, six clients will be attended by a registered nurse. The RN is in charge of all aspects of care, including developing the care plan, making interventions, and monitoring the care during her shift. The RN will hand off this responsibility to the following RN in charge when her shift is through. What kind of approach is demonstrated by this nursing care?

Primary nursing method
Team method
Functional method
Case method (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Case method

Case Management. For the duration of her whole shift, the nurse is solely responsible for attending to the patient's needs.

Question 33: A nurse is preparing to give a bed bath. What is the correct water temperature for the bath water?

37–40°C (98.6–104°F) (Correct answer)
48–50°C (118–122°F)
32–35°C (89.6–95°F)
43–46°C (109–115°F)

Correct answer: 37–40°C (98.6–104°F)

Bath water should be 37–40°C (98.6–104°F) to be comfortably warm without risk of burns.

Question 34: A nurse is assessing a febrile 3-year-old with a temperature of 39.5°C (103.1°F). Which initial nursing action is most appropriate?

Obtain blood cultures before any intervention
Apply a cooling blanket immediately
Restrict oral fluids to prevent vomiting
Administer acetaminophen per protocol (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Administer acetaminophen per protocol

Administering antipyretics such as acetaminophen per protocol is the priority intervention to safely reduce fever and improve the child's comfort.

Question 35: A patient with chronic liver disease presents with asterixis (flapping tremor), confusion, and fetor hepaticus. Which dietary modification should the nurse anticipate in the care plan?

Protein restriction to reduce ammonia production (Correct answer)
Increased sodium intake to maintain fluid balance
High-fat diet to provide caloric density
Fluid restriction to prevent ascites

Correct answer: Protein restriction to reduce ammonia production

Hepatic encephalopathy results from excess ammonia; reducing dietary protein decreases the substrate for ammonia production by gut bacteria.

Question 36: A freshly hired nurse with three months of experience on an adult medicine unit was asked to float to pediatrics. The nurse balks at performing pediatric skills and is given an engaging but intimidating assignment. The nurse needs to:

Resign on the spot from the nursing position and apply for a position that does not require floating
Ask several other nurses how they feel about pediatrics and find someone else who is willing to accept the assignment
Inform the nursing supervisor and the charge nurse on the pediatric floor about the nurse’s lack of skill and feelings of hesitations and request assistance (Correct answer)
Refuse the assignment and leave the unit requesting a vacation a day

Correct answer: Inform the nursing supervisor and the charge nurse on the pediatric floor about the nurse’s lack of skill and feelings of hesitations and request assistance

The nurse has an ethical duty to disclose her level of expertise to the individual in charge of the assignment and the individual in charge of the unit. As a result, the nurse prevents leaving clients behind and putting them in danger.

Question 37: A nurse is caring for postpartum patients. Which patient requires the nurse's most immediate assessment?

A patient 12 hours postpartum asking questions about newborn care
A patient requesting additional ice packs for perineal discomfort
A patient 6 hours post-vaginal delivery reporting mild uterine cramping while breastfeeding
A patient 2 hours post-cesarean delivery with a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg and heart rate of 120 bpm (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A patient 2 hours post-cesarean delivery with a blood pressure of 80/50 mmHg and heart rate of 120 bpm

Hypotension and tachycardia at 2 hours post-cesarean indicate possible hemorrhage or other hemodynamic instability requiring immediate assessment.

Question 38: A patient post-hip replacement surgery asks why they must avoid crossing their legs. The nurse's best response is:

It increases the risk of blood clots in the legs
It causes unnecessary pressure on the surgical wound
It impairs circulation to the operative extremity
Crossing the legs can dislocate the new hip joint (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Crossing the legs can dislocate the new hip joint

Adduction and internal rotation of the hip—as occurs when crossing the legs—can displace the prosthetic femoral head from the acetabular cup.

Question 39: A patient with a serum potassium of 2.9 mEq/L is prescribed IV potassium chloride. Which nursing action is essential?

Mix the KCl in a 10 mL saline flush and give rapidly
Infuse no faster than 10–20 mEq/hour via an infusion pump (Correct answer)
Administer only through a central line at any rate
Administer the infusion via IV push over 2 minutes

Correct answer: Infuse no faster than 10–20 mEq/hour via an infusion pump

IV potassium must never be given as a bolus; rates exceeding 20 mEq/hour risk fatal cardiac dysrhythmias.

Question 40: A nurse receives report on four patients. Which patient should the nurse visit FIRST?

A patient post-op day 3 with a surgical site that is clean, dry, and intact
A patient who received morphine 30 minutes ago and now has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min (Correct answer)
A patient with stable chronic heart failure awaiting discharge paperwork
A patient with type 2 diabetes whose blood glucose was 180 mg/dL at breakfast

Correct answer: A patient who received morphine 30 minutes ago and now has a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min

A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min after opioid administration indicates respiratory depression, a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention.

Question 41: A patient at 38 weeks' gestation presents with sudden, painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse suspects which condition?

Bloody show of impending labor
Placenta previa (Correct answer)
Abruptio placentae
Premature rupture of membranes

Correct answer: Placenta previa

Placenta previa classically presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester as the low-lying placenta separates.

Question 42: A nurse is performing ROM exercises on a patient. Moving the patient's ankle so the toes point upward toward the shin is called:

Eversion
Inversion
Plantar flexion
Dorsiflexion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dorsiflexion

Dorsiflexion decreases the angle between the dorsum of the foot and the leg, pointing the toes upward.

Question 43: A nurse is caring for a child with Type 1 diabetes who presents with confusion, diaphoresis, and pallor. Blood glucose is 48 mg/dL. Which is the priority intervention?

Give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate orally if the child can swallow (Correct answer)
Administer glucagon IM and call the physician
Administer insulin per sliding scale
Prepare for emergency intubation

Correct answer: Give 15 g of fast-acting carbohydrate orally if the child can swallow

If the child is conscious and able to swallow, the priority is oral fast-acting carbohydrates (15 g) following the '15-15 rule' to safely raise blood glucose.

Question 44: A public health nurse is investigating an outbreak of foodborne illness at a community gathering. What is the nurse's first priority in outbreak investigation?

Treat all individuals who are currently ill
Complete all required paperwork and submit to the health department
Notify the media to warn the community
Identify and remove the source of contamination to prevent further cases (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Identify and remove the source of contamination to prevent further cases

Identifying and eliminating the source of contamination is the primary goal of outbreak investigation to prevent additional cases.

Question 45: Which finding in a postoperative patient requires the most immediate nursing intervention?

Oral temperature of 37.8°C on day 2
Urinary output of 45 mL/hour
Pain rating of 5/10 at the incision site
Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min with SpO2 90% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min with SpO2 90%

A respiratory rate of 8 with SpO2 of 90% indicates respiratory depression requiring immediate intervention to prevent hypoxic injury.

Question 46: An infant is admitted with pyloric stenosis. Which laboratory finding is most expected due to repeated vomiting?

Metabolic acidosis with hyperkalemia
Respiratory acidosis with hyponatremia
Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia and hypochloremia (Correct answer)
Respiratory alkalosis with hypernatremia

Correct answer: Metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia and hypochloremia

Repeated projectile vomiting of gastric contents causes loss of hydrochloric acid and potassium, resulting in metabolic alkalosis with hypokalemia and hypochloremia.

Question 47: The nurse is teaching a patient about warfarin therapy. Which food should the patient be instructed to consume consistently rather than avoid entirely?

High-fiber foods such as whole grains
High-protein foods such as lean meats
Foods high in vitamin K such as leafy green vegetables (Correct answer)
Foods high in vitamin C such as citrus fruits

Correct answer: Foods high in vitamin K such as leafy green vegetables

Patients on warfarin should maintain a consistent vitamin K intake rather than eliminating it, because sudden changes alter INR.

Question 48: A patient with peripheral arterial disease (PAD) asks what position helps relieve rest pain in the legs. The nurse correctly advises the patient to:

Apply a heating pad to the legs
Elevate the legs above heart level
Lie flat with legs extended
Dangle the legs over the side of the bed (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Dangle the legs over the side of the bed

In PAD, gravity assists arterial flow; dangling the legs increases perfusion pressure and relieves ischemic rest pain.

Question 49: A nurse is administering morphine sulfate IV to a postoperative patient. Which finding requires the nurse to hold the medication and contact the provider?

Blood pressure of 130/82 mmHg
Respiratory rate of 9 breaths/min (Correct answer)
Heart rate of 78 bpm
Pain score of 7/10

Correct answer: Respiratory rate of 9 breaths/min

A respiratory rate below 12 breaths/min indicates opioid-induced respiratory depression, requiring immediate intervention.

Question 50: Which antidote should the nurse have readily available when administering IV opioids?

Naloxone (Narcan) (Correct answer)
Vitamin K (phytonadione)
Flumazenil (Romazicon)
Protamine sulfate

Correct answer: Naloxone (Narcan)

Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression by competitively binding mu-opioid receptors.

Question 51: A nurse is caring for a patient with a chest tube. The water-seal chamber shows continuous bubbling. What does this finding indicate?

Normal function of the chest tube drainage system
The tube is clamped and needs to be released
The lung has fully re-expanded
An air leak in the system or the patient's pleural space (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An air leak in the system or the patient's pleural space

Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an ongoing air leak, which may originate from the patient's pleural space or a loose connection.

Question 52: A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient who will self-administer insulin at home. Which site rotation strategy should the nurse teach?

Alternate between the arm and thigh daily to promote even insulin absorption
Rotate injections randomly across all body sites each day for even distribution
Use the same anatomical region consistently and rotate within that region (Correct answer)
Always inject in the abdomen because it has the fastest absorption

Correct answer: Use the same anatomical region consistently and rotate within that region

Using the same anatomical region and rotating within it prevents lipodystrophy and provides consistent insulin absorption.

Question 53: The nurse is caring for a patient receiving aminoglycoside antibiotic therapy. Which laboratory value must be monitored closely to detect early nephrotoxicity?

Serum creatinine and BUN (Correct answer)
Liver function tests (AST/ALT)
Complete blood count (CBC)
Serum potassium level

Correct answer: Serum creatinine and BUN

Aminoglycosides are nephrotoxic; rising serum creatinine and BUN are early indicators of renal damage.

Question 54: Which principle guides the nurse in prioritizing care using Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

Physiological needs must be met before higher-level needs can be addressed (Correct answer)
Safety needs take priority over all other needs
All needs are equal and should be addressed simultaneously
Psychosocial needs are always addressed before physiological needs

Correct answer: Physiological needs must be met before higher-level needs can be addressed

Maslow's hierarchy places physiological needs (airway, breathing, circulation) at the base, meaning they must be addressed first.

Question 55: The nurse is caring for a child with nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment finding is most expected with this diagnosis?

Polyuria and polydipsia
Hypertension and hematuria
Oliguria and elevated BUN/creatinine
Massive proteinuria and dependent edema (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Massive proteinuria and dependent edema

Nephrotic syndrome is characterized by massive proteinuria (>3.5 g/day in adults, >40 mg/m²/hr in children), which leads to hypoalbuminemia and dependent edema.

Question 56: A nurse is caring for a patient with a stage II pressure injury. Which characteristic best describes this wound?

Partial-thickness loss with a shallow open ulcer or intact blister (Correct answer)
Intact skin with non-blanchable redness
Full-thickness tissue loss with visible bone or muscle
Full-thickness skin loss exposing subcutaneous tissue

Correct answer: Partial-thickness loss with a shallow open ulcer or intact blister

A stage II pressure injury involves partial-thickness skin loss presenting as a shallow open ulcer or an intact or ruptured serum-filled blister.

Question 57: A patient is scheduled for a colonoscopy. Which bowel preparation instruction is most important to emphasize?

Discontinue all medications 48 hours before the procedure
Consume a high-fiber diet for 3 days prior to the procedure
Consume only clear liquids the day before the procedure and complete the full bowel prep (Correct answer)
A light meal of white rice and chicken is acceptable the evening before

Correct answer: Consume only clear liquids the day before the procedure and complete the full bowel prep

An adequate bowel prep with clear liquids and the prescribed laxative solution ensures visualization of the colon mucosa and prevents procedure cancellation.

Question 58: A patient suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which airway management procedure should a nursing assistant handle?

Assisting the patient to sit up on the side of the bed. (Correct answer)
Instructing the patient to cough effectively.
Auscultation of breath sounds every 4 hours.
Teaching the patient to use incentive spirometry.

Correct answer: Assisting the patient to sit up on the side of the bed.

The educational background and scope of practice of a nursing assistant include helping patients with positioning and activities of daily life. Under the direct supervision of the nurse, nonprofessional, unlicensed assistive nursing personnel may legally be assigned certain tasks and aspects of care, provided they are competent in those areas, such as assistance with transfers, range of motion, feeding, ambulation, and other tasks like making beds and assisting with bowel and bladder functions.

Question 59: Which clinical manifestation is an early sign of increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

Decreasing level of consciousness and restlessness (Correct answer)
Decerebrate posturing
Cushing's triad (bradycardia, widening pulse pressure, irregular respirations)
Fixed and dilated pupils bilaterally

Correct answer: Decreasing level of consciousness and restlessness

A decreasing level of consciousness is typically the earliest sign of rising ICP because the reticular activating system is sensitive to pressure changes.

Question 60: A nurse uses the SBAR communication tool when handing off a deteriorating patient. What does the 'R' stand for?

Review
Recommendation (Correct answer)
Response
Report

Correct answer: Recommendation

In SBAR, 'R' stands for Recommendation — the nurse's suggested action or plan for addressing the patient's condition.

Question 61: A patient is admitted with acute pancreatitis. Which position will the nurse place the patient in to reduce abdominal pain?

High Fowler's (90-degree sitting)
Fetal position (knees drawn to chest) (Correct answer)
Supine with legs elevated 30 degrees
Prone position (lying on the stomach)

Correct answer: Fetal position (knees drawn to chest)

The fetal position reduces tension on the inflamed pancreas and peritoneum, providing pain relief in acute pancreatitis.

Question 62: All of the nursing unit clients' medications are administered by the nurse in the medication unit. The head nurse is coordinating the activities for clients with other departments while making rounds with the doctor. The nurse's aide answers call lights and adjusts bed lines. A licensed practitioner nurse collects vital signs and bathes the patients; a second nurse is assigned to change the wound dressings. What kind of nursing care method does this illustrate?

Primary nursing method
Case management method
Functional method (Correct answer)
Team method

Correct answer: Functional method

It speaks of practical nursing. Instead of specific clients, staff members are assigned to certain tasks.

Question 63: Which assessment is most important for a nurse to perform before administering RhoGAM (Rh immunoglobulin) to a postpartum patient?

Confirm the mother is Rh-negative and the newborn is Rh-positive (Correct answer)
Ensure the patient has no known allergy to penicillin
Verify the mother's blood pressure is within normal limits
Confirm the patient delivered more than 72 hours ago

Correct answer: Confirm the mother is Rh-negative and the newborn is Rh-positive

RhoGAM is only indicated when an Rh-negative mother delivers an Rh-positive infant; confirming both blood types is essential before administration.

Question 64: A nurse is teaching a patient about cervical cancer screening guidelines. According to current US Preventive Services Task Force recommendations, when should cervical cancer screening (Pap smear) begin?

At age 18 or at first sexual intercourse
At the onset of menstruation (menarche)
At age 25 with high-risk HPV testing
At age 21 regardless of sexual history (Correct answer)

Correct answer: At age 21 regardless of sexual history

Current guidelines recommend Pap smears beginning at age 21 regardless of sexual activity, as cervical cancer is rare before this age.

Question 65: A nurse is caring for a patient with heart failure who has dependent edema and crackles bilaterally. Which position is most therapeutic?

Trendelenburg
Left lateral Sims'
High Fowler's (90°) (Correct answer)
Prone

Correct answer: High Fowler's (90°)

High Fowler's position reduces preload by pooling blood in dependent extremities and eases breathing in heart failure patients.

Question 66: A 2-year-old child is brought to the clinic for a well-child visit. Which developmental milestone should the nurse expect this child to have achieved?

Uses a vocabulary of at least 50 words and 2-word phrases (Correct answer)
Draws a person with 6 parts
Walks up stairs alternating feet
Rides a tricycle

Correct answer: Uses a vocabulary of at least 50 words and 2-word phrases

By age 2, children typically have a vocabulary of at least 50 words and can combine two words together, which is a key language milestone for this age group.

Question 67: A patient is ordered to receive vancomycin IV. The nurse administers the drug too quickly and the patient develops flushing and erythema of the face, neck, and chest. This reaction is known as:

Anaphylaxis
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Serum sickness
Red man syndrome (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Red man syndrome

Red man syndrome is caused by rapid vancomycin infusion and is characterized by flushing and erythema of the upper body.

Question 68: A school nurse discovers that a student has head lice (pediculosis capitis). According to current American Academy of Pediatrics guidelines, when should the student be allowed to return to school?

Only after a physician clears the student for return
After 48 hours of isolation at home
After all live lice and nits are completely absent
After treatment is initiated—there is no need to exclude the student (Correct answer)

Correct answer: After treatment is initiated—there is no need to exclude the student

Current AAP guidelines recommend against 'no-nit' policies; students should return after treatment begins because head lice pose minimal health risk and exclusion causes missed school days.

Question 69: The nursing assistant takes the patient's vital signs after the respiratory therapist suctions an intubated patient. Which vital sign value needs to be reported right away to the licensed nurse by the nursing assistant?

Heart rate of 98 beats/min
Blood pressure of 168/90 mm Hg
Tympanic temperature of 101.4ºF (38.6ºC) (Correct answer)
Respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min

Correct answer: Tympanic temperature of 101.4ºF (38.6ºC)

The risk of infection for a patient undergoing mechanical breathing never goes away. Bypassing the body's natural air-filtering systems, the endotracheal tube gives bacteria and viruses a direct path to the lower respiratory system.

Question 70: The nurse is performing a medication reconciliation on a newly admitted patient who takes MAOIs at home. Which over-the-counter medication poses the greatest danger for this patient?

Pseudoephedrine (decongestant) (Correct answer)
Docusate sodium (stool softener)
Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
Calcium carbonate (antacid)

Correct answer: Pseudoephedrine (decongestant)

Pseudoephedrine is a sympathomimetic that can trigger a hypertensive crisis when combined with MAOIs.

Question 71: A patient with a fractured pelvis is at greatest risk for which complication?

Hemorrhage (Correct answer)
Fat embolism
Compartment syndrome
Deep vein thrombosis

Correct answer: Hemorrhage

The pelvic region is highly vascular; pelvic fractures can cause massive internal hemorrhage that is rapidly life-threatening.

Question 72: A nurse is caring for a patient on contact precautions. Which task is safe to delegate to a UAP?

Educating the patient about hand hygiene importance
Assisting the patient with a bed bath using proper PPE (Correct answer)
Deciding whether to continue the contact precautions
Assessing skin integrity during bath

Correct answer: Assisting the patient with a bed bath using proper PPE

Assisting with a bed bath is a routine personal care task within UAP scope, provided they use appropriate PPE for contact precautions.

Question 73: A nurse is floating to the ICU from a medical-surgical unit. Which assignment is most appropriate for this float nurse?

A newly admitted patient in septic shock requiring vasopressor management
A patient being weaned from mechanical ventilation requiring frequent ventilator adjustments
A patient on a continuous insulin drip requiring titration every hour based on blood glucose
A stable ICU patient post-cardiac catheterization on day 2 with routine monitoring (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A stable ICU patient post-cardiac catheterization on day 2 with routine monitoring

A stable post-procedure patient requiring routine monitoring is the most appropriate assignment for a float nurse who may lack critical care-specific competencies.

Question 74: A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a patient with appendicitis. Which finding is consistent with Rovsing's sign?

Pain at McBurney's point on direct palpation
Hip flexion producing right lower quadrant pain (psoas sign)
Right lower quadrant pain elicited by palpating the left lower quadrant (Correct answer)
Pain upon release of pressure in the right lower quadrant (rebound tenderness)

Correct answer: Right lower quadrant pain elicited by palpating the left lower quadrant

Rovsing's sign is RLQ pain produced by palpation of the LLQ, suggesting peritoneal irritation from an inflamed appendix.

Question 75: A child weighing 20 kg requires IV fluid maintenance. Using the Holliday-Segar method, what is the correct daily fluid maintenance requirement?

1,000 mL/day
2,000 mL/day
1,500 mL/day (Correct answer)
1,800 mL/day

Correct answer: 1,500 mL/day

The Holliday-Segar method calculates: 100 mL/kg for the first 10 kg + 50 mL/kg for the next 10 kg = 1,000 + 500 = 1,500 mL/day for a 20 kg child.

Question 76: A nurse administers the wrong medication dose. After notifying the physician, what is the nurse's next priority action?

Document the error in the chart as a medication error
Call the pharmacist to verify the dose
Inform the charge nurse
File a variance/incident report (Correct answer)

Correct answer: File a variance/incident report

Filing an incident report per institutional policy is required to promote patient safety and system improvement after a medication error.

Question 77: A nurse is preparing to give a patient their daily dose of levothyroxine (Synthroid). Which instruction best supports proper absorption?

Give it with the morning meal to reduce GI upset
Give it with calcium supplements for added bone protection
Give it in the morning on an empty stomach, 30–60 minutes before breakfast (Correct answer)
Give it at bedtime with a glass of milk

Correct answer: Give it in the morning on an empty stomach, 30–60 minutes before breakfast

Levothyroxine absorption is maximized when taken on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before food or other medications.

Question 78: A nurse is caring for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP). Which position is contraindicated?

Head midline and neutral
Trendelenburg (head-down) position (Correct answer)
Head of bed elevated 30°
Slight reverse Trendelenburg

Correct answer: Trendelenburg (head-down) position

Trendelenburg increases venous pressure in the cerebral vasculature, further elevating intracranial pressure.

Question 79: A postoperative patient who had abdominal surgery 2 days ago reports sudden onset of severe shortness of breath, chest pain, and apprehension. The nurse suspects pulmonary embolism. Which action takes priority?

Administer oxygen and notify the provider immediately (Correct answer)
Position the patient in Trendelenburg to improve perfusion
Obtain a 12-lead ECG before calling the provider
Encourage the patient to take slow, deep breaths

Correct answer: Administer oxygen and notify the provider immediately

Suspected pulmonary embolism is a medical emergency; administering oxygen to treat hypoxemia and immediately notifying the provider are the priority actions.

Question 80: A patient who had a thyroidectomy 12 hours ago reports tingling around the mouth and muscle cramps in the hands. The nurse should assess for which complication?

Respiratory obstruction from hematoma
Thyroid storm
Hypocalcemia due to parathyroid damage (Correct answer)
Hyponatremia from SIADH

Correct answer: Hypocalcemia due to parathyroid damage

Parathyroid glands may be inadvertently removed or damaged during thyroidectomy, leading to hypocalcemia with tetany symptoms.

Question 81: A nurse working in a long-term care facility is planning assignments for a 12-hour shift. Which nursing task must be performed by an RN, not an LPN?

Changing a stable wound dressing per established protocol
Administering routine scheduled medications
Completing the comprehensive nursing assessment and updating the care plan (Correct answer)
Providing basic wound care for a small stage I pressure injury

Correct answer: Completing the comprehensive nursing assessment and updating the care plan

Comprehensive nursing assessment and care plan development are RN-specific responsibilities that cannot be delegated to an LPN.

Question 82: A breastfeeding mother asks why her baby's stools changed from dark green-black (meconium) to yellow and seedy. The nurse correctly explains that this change indicates:

The formula should be changed to a soy-based product
The newborn is receiving adequate breast milk (transitional to milk stools) (Correct answer)
The newborn may have a milk protein allergy
This is a sign of jaundice and requires medical evaluation

Correct answer: The newborn is receiving adequate breast milk (transitional to milk stools)

The progression from meconium to transitional stools to yellow seedy stools reflects the newborn's digestion of mature breast milk and confirms adequate intake.

Question 83: A patient with schizophrenia tells the nurse that the television is sending them personal messages. The nurse correctly identifies this as:

An idea of reference (Correct answer)
A command hallucination
Thought broadcasting
Nihilistic delusion

Correct answer: An idea of reference

An idea of reference is a delusion in which a patient believes that external events, objects, or people have a special personal meaning directed at them.

Question 84: When performing a head-to-toe assessment, the nurse auscultates bowel sounds and hears high-pitched, gurgling sounds every 5–15 seconds. How should the nurse document this finding?

Hyperactive bowel sounds
Normal bowel sounds (Correct answer)
Hypoactive bowel sounds
Absent bowel sounds

Correct answer: Normal bowel sounds

Normal bowel sounds occur every 5–30 seconds and are described as high-pitched, gurgling sounds.

Question 85: A nurse working at a county health department is notified of a confirmed case of meningococcal meningitis in a college dormitory. What is the nurse's priority public health action?

Wait for the laboratory to confirm the bacterial strain before taking action
Close the dormitory and test all 500 residents
Identify close contacts and coordinate prophylactic antibiotic treatment for them (Correct answer)
Administer the meningococcal vaccine to all close contacts immediately

Correct answer: Identify close contacts and coordinate prophylactic antibiotic treatment for them

Close contacts (roommates, household members) are at highest risk and should receive chemoprophylaxis (rifampin or ciprofloxacin) as soon as possible to prevent secondary cases.

Question 86: A patient with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which condition is an absolute contraindication to metformin use?

Renal impairment with GFR below 30 mL/min (Correct answer)
BMI greater than 30 kg/m²
A history of seasonal allergies
Mild hypertension controlled with diet

Correct answer: Renal impairment with GFR below 30 mL/min

Severe renal impairment (GFR < 30 mL/min) contraindicates metformin because the drug accumulates and causes lactic acidosis.

Question 87: A home health nurse is visiting a patient with congestive heart failure (CHF). Which finding requires the nurse to contact the provider immediately?

Mild ankle edema present at end of day
Blood pressure of 130/82 mmHg
Weight gain of 3 lbs in 2 days (Correct answer)
Patient reports sleeping with two pillows

Correct answer: Weight gain of 3 lbs in 2 days

A weight gain of 2–3 lbs in 24–48 hours indicates rapid fluid retention in CHF, signaling decompensation that requires prompt medical intervention.

Question 88: A nurse is educating parents of a newborn diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU). Which dietary instruction is most important?

Limit protein intake but allow natural foods freely
Avoid all dairy products and replace with soy formula
Restrict tyrosine-containing foods for the first 2 years
Maintain a phenylalanine-restricted diet for life (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Maintain a phenylalanine-restricted diet for life

PKU requires lifelong restriction of phenylalanine to prevent accumulation, which causes irreversible intellectual disability and neurological damage.

Question 89: A patient's apical pulse is 88 bpm and the radial pulse is 80 bpm. What is the pulse deficit, and what does it indicate?

Deficit of 8; indicates bradycardia
Deficit of 8; indicates hypertension
Deficit of 8; indicates some cardiac contractions are not producing a palpable peripheral pulse (Correct answer)
No deficit; both values are within normal limits

Correct answer: Deficit of 8; indicates some cardiac contractions are not producing a palpable peripheral pulse

A pulse deficit (apical minus radial) indicates that some ventricular contractions are too weak to produce a peripheral pulse wave.

Question 90: A nurse is using the CURE hierarchy when setting priorities. What does this model address that Maslow's hierarchy does not?

Self-actualization
Physical needs
Time-sensitivity and acuity of clinical deterioration (Correct answer)
Psychosocial needs

Correct answer: Time-sensitivity and acuity of clinical deterioration

The CURE model (Critical, Urgent, Routine, Extras) specifically incorporates clinical acuity and time-sensitivity, which Maslow's hierarchy does not directly address.

Question 91: A patient is receiving a continuous IV infusion of regular insulin. The nurse notes the blood glucose is 58 mg/dL and the patient is diaphoretic. What is the nurse's first action?

Administer 50% dextrose IV push per protocol
Stop the insulin infusion and notify the provider (Correct answer)
Offer the patient orange juice to drink
Recheck blood glucose in 15 minutes

Correct answer: Stop the insulin infusion and notify the provider

The insulin infusion must be stopped immediately to prevent further hypoglycemia before other corrective measures are taken.

Question 92: During a vaginal delivery, the nurse observes the umbilical cord prolapse before the baby's head. What is the nurse's immediate action?

Manually elevate the fetal presenting part off the cord with a gloved hand and call for help (Correct answer)
Clamp and cut the cord immediately
Prepare for immediate vaginal delivery by rushing the patient to push
Push the cord back into the uterus

Correct answer: Manually elevate the fetal presenting part off the cord with a gloved hand and call for help

Manual elevation of the presenting part relieves cord compression and maintains fetal oxygenation while an emergency cesarean is prepared.

Question 93: A nurse is caring for a patient with preeclampsia who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which assessment finding indicates magnesium toxicity?

Mild headache and visual blurring
Urinary output of 35 mL/hr
Blood pressure of 148/94 mmHg
Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min and absent deep tendon reflexes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min and absent deep tendon reflexes

Respiratory depression and loss of deep tendon reflexes are signs of magnesium toxicity requiring immediate discontinuation of the infusion.

Question 94: Which laboratory result is the most specific indicator of myocardial infarction (MI)?

Troponin I elevation (Correct answer)
Elevated myoglobin
Elevated CK-MB
Elevated LDH

Correct answer: Troponin I elevation

Troponin I is highly specific to cardiac muscle; its elevation is the gold standard for diagnosing acute myocardial injury.

Question 95: A community health nurse is performing a home visit for an elderly patient living alone. Which finding most strongly indicates elder abuse?

Multiple bruises in various stages of healing with inconsistent explanations (Correct answer)
Mild forgetfulness and difficulty balancing a checkbook
Reports of loneliness and occasional sadness
A cluttered home environment with limited mobility aids

Correct answer: Multiple bruises in various stages of healing with inconsistent explanations

Unexplained bruising in various stages of healing is a hallmark physical sign of elder abuse and mandates reporting to adult protective services.

Question 96: A patient with a penicillin allergy is prescribed cefazolin. Which nursing action is most appropriate?

Refuse to administer and substitute azithromycin without contacting the provider
Administer diphenhydramine prophylactically and then give the full dose
Administer with caution and monitor closely for cross-reactivity reactions (Correct answer)
Give the medication as ordered because cephalosporins are unrelated to penicillin

Correct answer: Administer with caution and monitor closely for cross-reactivity reactions

There is a small but real cross-reactivity between penicillins and cephalosporins; cautious administration with close monitoring is recommended.

Question 97: A nurse is assessing a patient for postpartum depression (PPD). Which symptom most distinguishes PPD from normal 'baby blues'?

Temporary difficulty sleeping when the baby sleeps
Mild fatigue and anxiety about newborn care
Tearfulness and mood swings on days 3–5 postpartum
Persistent feelings of worthlessness and inability to care for the infant lasting beyond 2 weeks (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Persistent feelings of worthlessness and inability to care for the infant lasting beyond 2 weeks

Baby blues resolve within 2 weeks; PPD is characterized by persistent, impairing symptoms including impaired infant bonding and feelings of worthlessness.

Question 98: A patient is in the oliguric phase of acute kidney injury (AKI). Which laboratory finding is expected?

Serum potassium 6.2 mEq/L (Correct answer)
BUN 10 mg/dL
Serum sodium 148 mEq/L
Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL

Correct answer: Serum potassium 6.2 mEq/L

AKI impairs potassium excretion, causing hyperkalemia; levels above 6.0 mEq/L pose serious cardiac risk.

Question 99: A public health nurse is planning a health education session for older adults on fall prevention. Which intervention has the strongest evidence for reducing fall risk in the elderly?

Taking calcium and vitamin D supplements
Tai chi and balance exercise programs (Correct answer)
Wearing hip protectors at all times
Removing all rugs and throw mats from the home

Correct answer: Tai chi and balance exercise programs

Tai chi and structured balance/strength exercise programs have robust evidence for reducing fall frequency and fall-related injuries in older adults.

Question 100: A charge nurse is assigning patients. Which patient is MOST appropriate to assign to a newly licensed RN still on orientation?

A patient with a new tracheostomy requiring suctioning every 2 hours
A patient in alcohol withdrawal showing early signs of delirium tremens
A patient post-op day 2 following an appendectomy with stable vital signs (Correct answer)
A patient receiving a continuous heparin drip for pulmonary embolism

Correct answer: A patient post-op day 2 following an appendectomy with stable vital signs

A stable post-op day 2 appendectomy patient represents a predictable, lower-acuity assignment appropriate for a nurse still building clinical competency.

NCLEX-RN (National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses)

The NCLEX-RN is the standardized national licensing exam required for BSN graduates to practice as registered nurses, assessing knowledge, skills, and clinical judgment essential to safe and effective entry-level nursing practice across all client need categories.

100

Questions

300 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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