Board Certified Ophthalmologist Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield Board Certified Ophthalmologist facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which subtype of juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) carries the highest risk of developing chronic anterior uveitis? → Oligoarticular JIA in ANA-positive young girls
2. Which aberration causes a point source of light to appear as a comet-shaped blur when imaged through the peripheral portion of a spherical lens? → Coma
3. What is the approximate accommodative demand for a 2.50 D myope who removes their spectacles to read at 40 cm? → 0 D
4. In a patient receiving long-term systemic corticosteroids for uveitis, which ocular complication is most characteristic of steroid use? → Posterior subcapsular cataract
5. What is the critical period for treating amblyopia to achieve the best visual outcome? → Before age 7-8 years
6. What is the hallmark finding on CT that distinguishes thyroid eye disease (Graves' orbitopathy) from orbital lymphoma? → Fusiform enlargement of extraocular muscles sparing the tendons
7. What is the Parks-Bielschowsky three-step test used to diagnose? → Cyclovertical muscle palsies
8. A neonate presents with bilateral upper eyelid ptosis, inability to elevate either eye, and chin-up head posture. What is the most likely diagnosis? → Congenital fibrosis of the extraocular muscles
9. In retinoscopy, a with-the-rule movement is observed in the horizontal meridian. What type of lens should be added to neutralize this meridian? → Plus cylinder at 180 degrees
10. In a patient with JIA-associated uveitis refractory to topical steroids and methotrexate, which biologic agent has FDA approval for this indication? → Adalimumab
11. Which condition involves inflammation of the eyelid margins? → Blepharitis
12. A prism with an apical angle of 10 degrees and refractive index of 1.5 produces what amount of deviation? → 5 prism diopters
13. Which of the following is the most characteristic initial symptom of typical retinitis pigmentosa (RP)? → Gradual difficulty with night vision (nyctalopia)
14. Which imaging modality is preferred for evaluating suspected optic nerve sheath meningioma? → MRI with fat suppression and gadolinium
15. Which of the following corneal dystrophies is NOT associated with a mutation in the Transforming Growth Factor Beta Induced (TGFB1) gene? → Macular Corneal Dystrophy
16. Which test is commonly used to evaluate tear production? → Schirmer test
17. A patient with intermediate uveitis shows 'snowballs' in the vitreous and 'snowbanking' over the pars plana. Which condition is most likely? → Pars planitis
18. A patient presents with recurrent hypopyon uveitis, painful oral ulcers, and genital ulcers. What is the most likely diagnosis? → Behçet disease
19. During retinoscopy at a working distance of 67 cm, a neutral reflex is observed with a +3.50 D lens in the phoropter. What is the patient's refractive error? → +2.00 D
20. Which optical instrument is commonly used to determine refractive errors? → Phoropter
21. Which imaging modality is considered the gold standard for detecting choroidal neovascularization in age-related macular degeneration? → Fluorescein angiography
22. Which eyelid position abnormality is characterized by the upper eyelid margin resting at or below the superior pupillary border with normal levator function? → Blepharoptosis
23. What is the near point of vision for a normal eye? → 25 cm
24. A 6-month-old has a constant large-angle esotropia with cross-fixation. What is the recommended initial management? → Bilateral medial rectus recession
25. Which of the following findings is most characteristic of Normal-Tension Glaucoma (NTG)? → Optic disc hemorrhages.
26. What is the primary mechanism of action of selective laser trabeculoplasty (SLT) in lowering intraocular pressure? → Stimulating biological remodeling of trabecular meshwork cells
27. Which corneal dystrophy is associated with mutations in the TGFBI gene on chromosome 5q31 and presents with granular opacities in the anterior stroma? → Granular corneal dystrophy type I (classic)
28. Which finding on OCT is most characteristic of central serous chorioretinopathy? → Neurosensory retinal detachment with subretinal fluid
29. Which cranial nerve palsy is most commonly associated with microvascular ischemia in a diabetic patient and typically resolves spontaneously within 3 months? → Cranial nerve III
30. What is the critical angle for total internal reflection at a crown glass-air interface if the refractive index of crown glass is 1.52? → 41.1 degrees