Board Certified Ophthalmologist Practice Test
Board Certified Ophthalmologist Board Certified Ophthalmologist Neuro-Ophthalmology Questions and Answers 2
A 45-year-old patient presents with sudden painless monocular vision loss and a relative afferent pupillary defect.
Fundoscopy reveals a swollen optic disc with peripapillary hemorrhages.
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Select your answer
A
Anterior ischemic optic neuropathy
B
Central retinal artery occlusion
C
Optic neuritis
D
Papilledema
Hint