ATSA (Air Traffic Standardized Aptitude Test) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A pilot is instructed to contact approach on 119.1. The pilot reads back '119.0.' What should the controller do?

Confirm 119.1 and have the pilot re-read the correct frequency (Correct answer)
Accept the readback since 0.1 MHz is a minor difference
Issue a PIREP to document the error
Contact approach on 119.0 to advise them

Correct answer: Confirm 119.1 and have the pilot re-read the correct frequency

Controllers must correct any readback errors immediately to prevent communication failure on the wrong frequency.

Question 2: An airspeed indicator shows 240 knots. The aircraft must slow to 180 knots in 3 minutes. What is the required deceleration rate per minute?

20 knots/min (Correct answer)
30 knots/min
60 knots/min
40 knots/min

Correct answer: 20 knots/min

The aircraft must lose 60 knots over 3 minutes, which equals 20 knots per minute.

Question 3: What does the acronym 'ATIS' stand for in aviation?

Advanced Traffic Identification System
Aerodrome Traffic Instruction Summary
Air Traffic Information Service
Automatic Terminal Information Service (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Automatic Terminal Information Service

ATIS (Automatic Terminal Information Service) is a continuous broadcast of recorded non-control information to reduce controller workload.

Question 4: A controller reads: 'Weather at destination: measured ceiling 900 broken, visibility 3 miles in light rain, temperature 12, dew point 10, altimeter 29.87.' Which condition indicates potential instrument meteorological conditions (IMC)?

The visibility of 3 miles
The ceiling of 900 feet broken (Correct answer)
The altimeter setting below 30.00
The temperature-dew point spread of 2 degrees

Correct answer: The ceiling of 900 feet broken

A broken ceiling at 900 feet is below the VFR minimums of 1,000 feet, indicating IMC conditions that require instrument flight rules.

Question 5: An aircraft transponder code is set to 7600. What does this squawk code indicate?

Emergency
Radio failure (Correct answer)
Hijacking
Military intercept

Correct answer: Radio failure

Squawk 7600 is the universal code for loss of communication (radio failure) on an aircraft.

Question 6: A controller sequences three arrivals spaced 5 minutes apart. The first lands at 14:10. At what time does the third aircraft land?

14:25
14:18
14:20 (Correct answer)
14:15

Correct answer: 14:20

First lands at 14:10; second at 14:15; third at 14:20 (two 5-minute intervals later).

Question 7: At a control tower, the following staffing rules apply: 1) If the weather is below VFR minimums, then Sam must work the radar position. 2) If Sam works the radar position, then Maria must assist. 3) If Maria assists, then Tom cannot be on break. The weather is currently below VFR minimums. Which of the following statements must be true?

Tom cannot be on break. (Correct answer)
Maria is not assisting.
Sam is not working radar.
Tom is on break.

Correct answer: Tom cannot be on break.

The weather is below VFR, which triggers the first rule, meaning Sam must work radar. This triggers the second rule, meaning Maria must assist. This, in turn, triggers the third rule, which concludes that Tom cannot be on break. The logic flows directly from the initial condition through all three rules.

Question 8: How many miles must pass before a departure controller turns over control of the airplane to a center controller?

30 miles out
10 miles out
20 miles out
40 miles out (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 40 miles out

A departure controller typically hands over control of an airplane to a center controller when the aircraft is approximately 40 miles out from the airport. This distance signifies the boundary where the aircraft transitions from the terminal departure airspace, managed by the departure controller, to the broader en route airspace, which is managed by the center controller. This ensures continuous air traffic services as the aircraft proceeds on its flight path.

Question 9: Given T=6, U=T×2, V=U÷T, W=V+U. What is W?

13
14 (Correct answer)
12
15

Correct answer: 14

U=12, V=12÷6=2, W=2+12=14.

Question 10: Five fixes are along a route: V, W, X, Y, Z. X is between W and Y. Z is the last fix. V is before W. What is the correct order?

V, W, X, Y, Z (Correct answer)
W, V, X, Y, Z
V, X, W, Y, Z
V, W, Y, X, Z

Correct answer: V, W, X, Y, Z

V before W, then X between W and Y, and Z is last: V → W → X → Y → Z.

Question 11: Two aircraft are at the same altitude. One is 10 nm north of a fix, the other is 10 nm south. Both are heading toward the fix at the same speed. When will they be in conflict?

Immediately
When they are each 5 nm from the fix
When they reach the fix simultaneously (Correct answer)
They are not in conflict because they approach from opposite sides

Correct answer: When they reach the fix simultaneously

Both aircraft will arrive at the same point (the fix) at the same time, creating a conflict at the fix.

Question 12: The primary challenge introduced by the 'eye' symbol in the Spatial and Visual Relationships test is the requirement to:

make faster calculations.
switch your mental point of view. (Correct answer)
predict the aircraft's future path.
identify the type of aircraft.

Correct answer: switch your mental point of view.

The core function of the 'eye' symbol is to signal a shift in perspective from the internal cockpit view to an external observer's view. This requires the test-taker to mentally switch their point of view to correctly assess the relative positions of the aircraft.

Question 13: A radar return shows an aircraft at FL350 descending to FL200. The aircraft has traveled through 10,000 feet of the descent. What is the remaining descent in feet?

15,000 feet (Correct answer)
5,000 feet
10,000 feet
25,000 feet

Correct answer: 15,000 feet

FL350 to FL200 is 15,000 feet total; after descending 10,000 feet, 15,000 feet remain... wait — total is 15,000, minus 10,000 descended = 5,000 remaining.

Question 14: A sequence: X=9, Y=X-6, Z=X+Y. What is Z×Y?

27
54
36 (Correct answer)
33

Correct answer: 36

Y=3, Z=9+3=12, Z×Y=12×3=36.

Question 15: A controller's radar shows an aircraft symbol with a leader line pointing toward bearing 045°. What does the leader line indicate?

The direction of the nearest airport
The aircraft's assigned altitude
The aircraft's projected future position (Correct answer)
The aircraft's origin point

Correct answer: The aircraft's projected future position

A leader line on radar extends in the direction of the aircraft's current track, showing projected position.

Question 16: A 'near mid-air collision' (NMAC) is defined as an incident where aircraft came within what distance of each other?

1 nautical mile of each other
100 feet vertically or 500 feet horizontally
500 feet of each other (Correct answer)
200 feet vertically or 1,000 feet horizontally

Correct answer: 500 feet of each other

An NMAC is defined as an occurrence associated with aircraft in flight where the possibility of collision existed, with separation of 500 feet or less.

Question 17: If you were in the tower, which are the EXCLUSIVE FIVE ATC positions that you would direct an aircraft to?

Departure, Approach, & Tower, Center, Airspace
None of the above
Ground, Clearance Delivery, & Tower, Center, Ocean
Ground, Departure, & Approach, Clearance Delivery, Tower (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ground, Departure, & Approach, Clearance Delivery, Tower

The five exclusive ATC positions that a tower controller would directly hand off an aircraft to are Ground, Departure, Approach, Clearance Delivery, and Tower (for internal coordination). These positions cover the various stages of flight within and immediately surrounding an airport, from initial clearance and taxi to takeoff and approach. Center control manages en route traffic, which is typically outside the direct handoff scope of a local tower controller.

Question 18: What does 'ATIS' stand for and what is its primary purpose?

Air Traffic Instruction Summary; document controller clearances
Advanced Traffic Identification System; track aircraft transponders
Air Traffic Information Service; relay IFR clearances
Automatic Terminal Information Service; broadcast routine airport and weather information (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Automatic Terminal Information Service; broadcast routine airport and weather information

ATIS continuously broadcasts routine airport and weather information to reduce controller workload.

Question 19: A passage states: 'Approach control assumes responsibility for aircraft transferred from en route control once communication is established and the transfer is completed.' En route transfers an aircraft to approach control. The pilot calls approach but approach does not respond. Who has responsibility for the aircraft?

The pilot, because they are responsible for their own navigation
En route control, because the transfer is not yet completed (Correct answer)
Neither facility, creating a gap in coverage
Approach control, because the pilot initiated communication

Correct answer: En route control, because the transfer is not yet completed

The passage requires both communication establishment and completion of transfer; since approach did not respond, the transfer is incomplete and en route retains responsibility.

Question 20: At a non-towered airport, Aircraft A is on a 3-mile final and Aircraft B is on a 5-mile final on the same runway. Aircraft A is at 90 knots; Aircraft B is at 130 knots. Is a conflict likely?

No, Aircraft A will land well before Aircraft B arrives
Yes, but only if Aircraft B is heavier
Yes, Aircraft B will close on Aircraft A before touchdown (Correct answer)
No, because non-towered airports have no separation

Correct answer: Yes, Aircraft B will close on Aircraft A before touchdown

Aircraft B is closing at 40 knots on Aircraft A; with only a 2-mile gap and higher speed, it will close significantly before Aircraft A clears the runway.

Question 21: A pilot requests a 'short approach.' What does the controller need to consider before approving it?

Whether the aircraft type is approved for short-field operations
The aircraft's fuel state to confirm it can execute a go-around
Whether the aircraft has the proper avionics for a shortened approach
Spacing with any preceding traffic and potential runway occupancy conflicts (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Spacing with any preceding traffic and potential runway occupancy conflicts

Before approving a short approach, the controller must ensure adequate spacing from preceding traffic and no runway occupancy conflict.

Question 22: A manual passage reads: 'Runway visual range (RVR) is reported in hundreds of feet and represents the maximum horizontal distance at which a pilot can see runway markings or lights.' RVR is reported as 24. What does this value represent?

24 statute miles of visibility along the runway
24 meters of visibility, used for international operations
240 feet of visibility, below all minimums
2,400 feet of visibility along the runway (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2,400 feet of visibility along the runway

RVR is reported in hundreds of feet, so a reported value of 24 equals 2,400 feet of runway visibility.

Question 23: Read the following passage and answer the question. "A METAR is a routine aviation weather report issued hourly, unless significant weather changes necessitate a special report, known as a SPECI. A typical METAR contains data on wind, visibility, runway visual range (RVR), present weather, sky conditions, temperature, and altimeter setting. The purpose is to provide a standardized, detailed snapshot of current meteorological conditions at an airport. This allows flight crews and operational personnel to make informed, timely decisions regarding flight safety." What is the primary function of a METAR report as described in the passage?

To report exclusively on wind and visibility for takeoffs.
To issue special alerts (SPECI) for in-flight emergencies only.
To communicate a standardized summary of current weather conditions at a specific location. (Correct answer)
To provide a long-range weather forecast for pilots.

Correct answer: To communicate a standardized summary of current weather conditions at a specific location.

The passage defines a METAR as a 'routine aviation weather report' that provides a 'detailed snapshot of current meteorological conditions at an airport.' Its goal is to standardize this information for safety decisions.

Question 24: Which of the following runways should be used when the wind speed is less than 5 knots?

Controller’s choice
Any runway
Calm wind (Correct answer)
Pilot’s choice

Correct answer: Calm wind

When wind speeds are less than 5 knots, the wind is considered 'calm.' In such conditions, the preferred runway for landing and takeoff is typically designated as the 'calm wind runway,' which is chosen based on factors like noise abatement, runway length, or traffic patterns, rather than wind direction.

Question 25: A controller receives two position reports at the same fix but different times: Aircraft Alpha at 1310 and Aircraft Beta at 1315. They are at the same altitude on the same airway. What is their separation in time?

3 minutes
0 minutes
10 minutes
5 minutes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5 minutes

Alpha crossed at 1310 and Beta crossed at 1315, giving a 5-minute time-based separation.

Question 26: A scenario in the ATC Collision Simulation presents no potential collisions among the moving aircraft. What is the correct action the test-taker should perform?

Press the number key for the fastest-moving aircraft.
Press the '0' key on the numeric keypad. (Correct answer)
Remove any aircraft icon to be safe.
Wait for the scenario to end without any input.

Correct answer: Press the '0' key on the numeric keypad.

In scenarios where no aircraft are on a collision course, the correct procedure is to press the '0' key on the numeric keypad to indicate that the screen is clear of conflicts. This action is scored for both accuracy and speed.

Question 27: A controller is sequencing departures with the following constraints: 1) Flight 50 must depart sometime before Flight 70. 2) Flight 60 must depart immediately after Flight 80. 3) Flight 90 must depart last. Which of the following is a valid departure sequence?

80, 60, 90, 50, 70
80, 50, 60, 70, 90
70, 50, 80, 60, 90
50, 80, 60, 70, 90 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 50, 80, 60, 70, 90

This sequence is valid because Flight 50 departs before Flight 70, Flight 60 departs immediately after Flight 80, and Flight 90 is the last to depart, satisfying all three rules.

Question 28: What does the term 'handoff' mean in air traffic control?

Transferring radio communication and radar identification of an aircraft to the next sector or facility (Correct answer)
Physically passing paper flight strips between controllers
Landing an aircraft without radio contact
Handing a pilot a weather briefing

Correct answer: Transferring radio communication and radar identification of an aircraft to the next sector or facility

A handoff is the transfer of radar identification and communications responsibility for an aircraft from one controller position or facility to another.

Question 29: A passage about conflict alerts reads: 'A conflict alert indicates predicted loss of separation within approximately 2 minutes. Controllers must evaluate and resolve the conflict before separation is lost.' Two aircraft trigger a conflict alert. The controller calculates they will conflict in 90 seconds. What does the passage require?

Wait until the aircraft are 1 minute apart before taking action
Evaluate and resolve the conflict before separation is actually lost (Correct answer)
Issue traffic alerts and let pilots exercise see-and-avoid
Transfer both aircraft to the adjacent sector immediately

Correct answer: Evaluate and resolve the conflict before separation is actually lost

The passage requires controllers to resolve the conflict before separation is lost, not after; with 90 seconds until conflict, immediate action is required.

Question 30: During a coordination failure between two facilities, the appropriate initial action is to:

Transfer the aircraft immediately to avoid responsibility
Communicate clearly with the other facility and loop in supervisors if unresolved (Correct answer)
Blame the other facility to protect your record
Independently resolve the conflict without informing supervisors

Correct answer: Communicate clearly with the other facility and loop in supervisors if unresolved

Clear interagency communication followed by supervisor involvement when needed ensures safe conflict resolution.

Question 31: When building a mental picture of airspace during an ATSA simulation, which information is LEAST immediately useful?

Current aircraft positions
Projected conflict points
Altitude assignments
Pilot certificates for each flight (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pilot certificates for each flight

Pilot certificate details are not relevant to real-time ATC traffic management or conflict resolution.

Question 32: An aircraft climbs from 3,000 ft to 15,000 ft at 1,200 ft per minute. How many minutes does the climb take?

8 min
12 min
15 min
10 min (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 10 min

Altitude gain = 15,000 - 3,000 = 12,000 ft; time = 12,000 / 1,200 = 10 minutes.

Question 33: Which type of approach provides both lateral and vertical guidance to the runway?

NDB approach
ILS approach (Correct answer)
VOR approach
LOC approach

Correct answer: ILS approach

The ILS provides both localizer (lateral) and glide slope (vertical) guidance to the runway.

Question 34: When a controller clears an aircraft to 'descend via' a published STAR, what is the pilot expected to do?

Descend to the lowest altitude on the chart and hold
Contact company dispatch for descent clearance
Fly the lateral path and comply with all published altitude and speed restrictions on the STAR (Correct answer)
Descend at pilot's discretion to any altitude

Correct answer: Fly the lateral path and comply with all published altitude and speed restrictions on the STAR

'Descend via' authorizes the aircraft to follow the STAR's lateral course while complying with all depicted crossing restrictions for altitude and speed.

Question 35: Which of the following scenarios represents a loss of separation in terminal radar airspace (within 40 miles of the airport)?

Two aircraft 4 miles apart laterally at the same altitude
Two aircraft 500 feet vertically apart on parallel routes
Two aircraft 3 miles apart with 800 feet vertical
Two aircraft 2 miles apart laterally at the same altitude (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Two aircraft 2 miles apart laterally at the same altitude

In terminal airspace, the standard radar separation is 3 miles; 2 miles laterally at the same altitude constitutes a loss of separation.

Question 36: In the PPI, 'achievement striving' is considered a positive ATC trait because it:

Encourages competition that undermines team cohesion
Drives continuous improvement and high performance standards (Correct answer)
Leads controllers to take unsafe shortcuts to meet goals
Motivates controllers to rush through tasks to finish faster

Correct answer: Drives continuous improvement and high performance standards

Achievement striving motivates consistent high performance and professional growth when channeled appropriately.

Question 37: An aircraft requests an amended route while you are issuing separation instructions to another flight. You should:

Ignore the amendment request until a quieter period
Tell the requesting aircraft to standby, complete the separation instruction, then respond (Correct answer)
Provide the amended route immediately to avoid holding up the pilot
Issue the separation instruction and amendment simultaneously

Correct answer: Tell the requesting aircraft to standby, complete the separation instruction, then respond

Separation is safety-critical and must not be interrupted; the amendment request can wait a brief moment.

Question 38: A trainee controller becomes overwhelmed during a busy period. The best immediate response from the supervisor is to:

Remove the trainee immediately without explanation
Announce to all controllers that the trainee needs help
Offer to take a portion of the sector's traffic or step in if safety is at risk (Correct answer)
Wait to see if the trainee self-corrects

Correct answer: Offer to take a portion of the sector's traffic or step in if safety is at risk

A supervisor should actively support a trainee by reducing workload or stepping in to prevent safety lapses.

Question 39: Two aircraft are separated by 5 nautical miles on radar. The minimum required separation is 3 nautical miles. How much buffer separation exists?

5 nautical miles
2 nautical miles (Correct answer)
1 nautical mile
3 nautical miles

Correct answer: 2 nautical miles

The buffer is the actual separation minus the required minimum: 5 − 3 = 2 nautical miles.

Question 40: The introduction of arithmetic problems during the ATSA's ATC Collision Simulation is primarily designed to assess which specific cognitive ability?

Long-term memory recall of complex formulas.
Mathematical proficiency under ideal, non-stressful conditions.
Visual acuity and the ability to spot small details on a busy screen.
The ability to divide attention and switch between different types of mental tasks. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The ability to divide attention and switch between different types of mental tasks.

This part of the exam assesses a candidate's ability to task-switch and manage cognitive load. It simulates the real-world environment where a controller must handle a primary task (managing traffic) while also processing unrelated, secondary information without degrading performance on the primary, safety-critical objective.

Question 41: A VFR pilot requests flight following. Radar shows the aircraft at an altitude that places it 200 ft below Class B airspace. What should the controller do?

Ignore it since VFR pilots are responsible for their own airspace
Issue a frequency change to approach control
Advise the pilot of the Class B airspace floor and suggest a lower altitude (Correct answer)
Clear the aircraft into Class B immediately

Correct answer: Advise the pilot of the Class B airspace floor and suggest a lower altitude

The controller should issue a safety advisory and inform the pilot of the proximity to Class B airspace.

Question 42: What is the purpose of a LAHSO (Land and Hold Short Operations) clearance?

To reduce noise over noise-sensitive areas
To expedite departure release in low visibility conditions
To allow aircraft to bypass the hold-short line for taxi purposes
To authorize simultaneous use of intersecting runways while maintaining separation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To authorize simultaneous use of intersecting runways while maintaining separation

LAHSO allows controllers to land aircraft on intersecting runways simultaneously by requiring aircraft to hold short of the intersection.

Question 43: Which organization sets global standards for air traffic management procedures and phraseology adopted by most countries?

FAA
IATA
ICAO (Correct answer)
NTSB

Correct answer: ICAO

The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) establishes global standards and recommended practices for ATC procedures and phraseology.

Question 44: Aircraft X is assigned FL230 and Aircraft Y is assigned FL210. Both are on the same airway and same direction. Is vertical separation standard met?

No, 3,000 ft is required at all altitudes
No, 2,000 ft separation is only above FL410
Yes, 2,000 ft separation exists below FL410
Yes, only 1,000 ft is needed below FL290 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Yes, only 1,000 ft is needed below FL290

Below FL290, the required vertical separation standard is 1,000 ft, so 2,000 ft between FL210 and FL230 exceeds the requirement.

Question 45: A fuel gauge reads 3/4 full on a tank that holds 800 gallons. How many gallons remain?

600 gallons (Correct answer)
500 gallons
200 gallons
400 gallons

Correct answer: 600 gallons

Three-quarters of 800 gallons equals 600 gallons remaining in the tank.

Question 46: While vectoring an aircraft for an ILS approach, a pilot-deviation report comes in from another sector. What is the correct action?

Hand off the approach aircraft and handle the deviation
Acknowledge the report briefly, then continue vectoring the approach aircraft (Correct answer)
Immediately call the other sector back
Ignore the deviation report until the approach is complete

Correct answer: Acknowledge the report briefly, then continue vectoring the approach aircraft

Acknowledge the incoming call briefly and continue the safety-critical task of vectoring for approach before following up.

Question 47: What is the typical distance at which a tower controller receives an aircraft coming in?

20 miles (Correct answer)
15 miles
25 miles
10 miles

Correct answer: 20 miles

A tower controller typically receives an aircraft coming in when it is approximately 20 miles from the airport. This handoff occurs after the approach controller has guided the aircraft closer to the airport and sequenced it into the landing pattern. The tower controller then assumes responsibility for issuing final approach instructions, landing clearance, and subsequent ground movement instructions.

Question 48: The 'point of no return' in a conflict scenario refers to:

The last moment a controller can issue a resolution that will be effective (Correct answer)
The moment TCAS activates automatically
The boundary of controlled airspace
The point where the aircraft runs out of fuel

Correct answer: The last moment a controller can issue a resolution that will be effective

The point of no return is the latest moment at which a controller instruction can be given and still achieve the required separation.

Question 49: You memorize five frequencies: 118.3, 121.5, 119.7, 125.2, 120.8. Which frequency is highest?

125.2 (Correct answer)
120.8
121.5
119.7

Correct answer: 125.2

125.2 MHz is the highest of all five frequencies listed.

Question 50: An LOA between two facilities reads: 'Eastbound traffic crossing the boundary above FL240 must be at FL260 or above and on a published airway.' An aircraft is eastbound, crossing at FL250, on a direct routing not on a published airway. How many LOA conditions does this flight violate?

The LOA does not apply because the aircraft is above FL240
Two — both the altitude and the routing violate the LOA (Correct answer)
One — the direct routing violates the airway requirement
Zero — FL250 is above FL240

Correct answer: Two — both the altitude and the routing violate the LOA

The LOA requires eastbound crossings above FL240 to be at FL260 or above AND on a published airway; FL250 fails the altitude requirement and a direct routing fails the airway requirement.

Question 51: The PPI characteristic of 'orderliness' in ATC professionals primarily contributes to:

Preference for working alone without team input
Rigid adherence to routine that prevents adaptation
Organized workload management that reduces error likelihood (Correct answer)
Excessive time spent organizing rather than controlling

Correct answer: Organized workload management that reduces error likelihood

Orderliness supports organized and efficient workload management, which directly reduces operational errors.

Question 52: What is the purpose of a Runway Incursion Prevention program at airports?

To control bird strikes near the runway environment
To manage fuel truck routing on the ramp
To prevent unauthorized or unsafe entries onto active runways (Correct answer)
To reduce jet blast incidents near terminals

Correct answer: To prevent unauthorized or unsafe entries onto active runways

Runway incursion prevention programs focus on eliminating unauthorized aircraft, vehicle, or person entries onto active runways, one of aviation's highest risk events.

Question 53: Which of the following is the LEAST desirable characteristic for an individual working in a collaborative, team-based air traffic control environment?

High degree of individualism (Correct answer)
Conscientiousness
Decisiveness
Stress tolerance

Correct answer: High degree of individualism

While independence can be a positive trait, a high degree of individualism is undesirable in ATC. The job relies heavily on teamwork, constant communication, and seamless coordination. An overly individualistic person may struggle to follow team protocols, accept instructions, or communicate effectively, posing a risk to the system.

Question 54: In ATSA collision simulation testing, what skill is primarily being evaluated?

Proficiency with radio phraseology
Memory of federal aviation regulations
Ability to detect and resolve developing conflicts before separation is lost (Correct answer)
Mathematical calculation of fuel burn rates

Correct answer: Ability to detect and resolve developing conflicts before separation is lost

The collision simulation portion of the ATSA evaluates a candidate's ability to scan for, identify, and resolve conflicts among multiple aircraft.

Question 55: When multiple pilots request weather deviations at the same time, the most effective strategy is to:

Inform pilots that simultaneous deviations are not permitted
Issue identical clearances to all aircraft to save time
Assess each aircraft's position and heading, then issue individualized clearances in order of urgency (Correct answer)
Have all aircraft hold until the weather clears

Correct answer: Assess each aircraft's position and heading, then issue individualized clearances in order of urgency

Individualized clearances based on each aircraft's position prevent conflicts during simultaneous weather deviations.

Question 56: A sequence is shown: X=14, Y=7, Z=X-Y. What is Z?

8
7 (Correct answer)
6
5

Correct answer: 7

Z = X - Y = 14 - 7 = 7.

Question 57: On a radar scope, a 'coast track' indicates what about an aircraft's transponder?

The transponder is transmitting in emergency mode
The aircraft is coasting to a stop on the runway
The transponder return has been lost and the track is being computer-estimated based on last known data (Correct answer)
The aircraft has switched to a coastal oceanic frequency

Correct answer: The transponder return has been lost and the track is being computer-estimated based on last known data

A coast track is a computer-generated estimated position shown when radar contact is lost, based on the aircraft's last known heading and speed.

Question 58: A strip shows squawk codes 4521, 4251, 4512, and 4215. Which code contains the digits 2, 5, 1, and 4 in that exact order?

4215
4512
4251 (Correct answer)
4521

Correct answer: 4251

Code 4251 contains the digits 4, 2, 5, 1 — the only code whose second digit is 2 and third digit is 5.

Question 59: A DME (Distance Measuring Equipment) shows 45 nautical miles to a VOR. The aircraft travels at 270 knots groundspeed. In how many minutes will it reach the VOR?

12 minutes
15 minutes
8 minutes
10 minutes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 10 minutes

At 270 knots (4.5 NM/min), covering 45 NM takes exactly 10 minutes.

Question 60: A runway is available for landing if and only if there is no departing aircraft and the weather is above minimums. Currently, the weather is above minimums, but a Boeing 737 is positioned on the runway for takeoff. Which of the following is the correct status of the runway?

The runway is available because the Boeing 737 will depart soon.
The runway is available because the weather is good.
The runway is not available. (Correct answer)
The runway status cannot be determined.

Correct answer: The runway is not available.

The rule states that two conditions must be met for the runway to be available: no departing aircraft AND weather above minimums. While the weather condition is met, the condition of 'no departing aircraft' is not, as the Boeing 737 is on the runway for takeoff. Since both conditions are not met, the runway is not available.

Question 61: Three aircraft (A, B, C) are in a holding pattern with these altitude restrictions: 1) Aircraft A and Aircraft B must have at least 1,000 feet of vertical separation. 2) Aircraft C must be at a higher altitude than Aircraft A. 3) Aircraft B is holding at 10,000 feet. Which of the following is a permissible set of altitudes for Aircraft A and Aircraft C?

A = 9,000 ft, C = 12,000 ft (Correct answer)
A = 11,000 ft, C = 10,000 ft
A = 10,000 ft, C = 11,000 ft
A = 10,500 ft, C = 11,500 ft

Correct answer: A = 9,000 ft, C = 12,000 ft

Aircraft A must be at least 1,000 feet away from Aircraft B (10,000 ft), so 9,000 ft is valid. Aircraft C must be higher than Aircraft A, and 12,000 ft is higher than 9,000 ft. All aircraft maintain at least 1,000 feet of separation from each other (A-B is 1000 ft, A-C is 3000 ft, B-C is 2000 ft).

Question 62: No VFR flight may enter Class A airspace. Aircraft N88TQ entered Class A airspace. What must be true?

N88TQ is not VFR (Correct answer)
N88TQ has a waiver
N88TQ is VFR
N88TQ is military

Correct answer: N88TQ is not VFR

If no VFR flight may enter Class A, and N88TQ entered, it logically cannot be operating VFR.

Question 63: Aircraft A is at your 3 o'clock position moving toward your 9 o'clock. Aircraft B is at your 9 o'clock moving toward your 3 o'clock. Describe their relative paths.

They are in a crossing pattern
They are diverging
They are on parallel tracks
They are on a head-on collision course (Correct answer)

Correct answer: They are on a head-on collision course

Aircraft moving in directly opposite directions along the same east-west line are on a head-on course.

Question 64: Two aircraft have beacon codes 4573 and 4537. Which digit position differs between them?

Position 1
Position 4
Position 3 (Correct answer)
Position 2

Correct answer: Position 3

Codes 4573 and 4537 differ at position 3: 7 vs 3.

Question 65: Three flight levels are given: FL240, FL270, FL250. Which is the middle value when sorted in ascending order?

FL270
FL250 (Correct answer)
FL240
FL260

Correct answer: FL250

Sorted ascending: FL240, FL250, FL270 — FL250 is in the middle.

Question 66: An aircraft is cruising at 360 knots and is 180 nautical miles from its destination. What is the estimated time of arrival?

20 minutes
60 minutes
30 minutes (Correct answer)
45 minutes

Correct answer: 30 minutes

180 nm ÷ 360 knots = 0.5 hours = 30 minutes.

Question 67: A passage reads: 'When a pilot uses the phrase 'request flight following,' the controller may provide radar traffic advisories on a workload-permitting basis. This service does not replace the need for VFR pilots to maintain their own terrain and traffic separation.' A VFR pilot receiving flight following requests a lower altitude. What must the pilot still ensure?

That a new flight plan is filed reflecting the new altitude
That ATC approves the altitude change before descending
That the destination airport is notified of the altitude change
That the pilot maintains their own terrain and traffic separation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: That the pilot maintains their own terrain and traffic separation

The passage explicitly states that flight following does not replace the VFR pilot's responsibility to maintain their own terrain and traffic separation.

Question 68: You are briefly shown the following equations: X = 9, Y = X / 3, Z = 4. What is the value of Y?

1
3 (Correct answer)
9
4

Correct answer: 3

To solve this, you must first recall the value of X, which is 9. Then, substitute this value into the equation for Y. The equation is Y = X / 3, so Y = 9 / 3, which equals 3.

Question 69: You memorize: F=100, G=25, H=F-G×3. What is H?

75
25 (Correct answer)
150
225

Correct answer: 25

G × 3 = 75, then H = 100 - 75 = 25.

Question 70: A radar display shows an aircraft's track as a series of dots curving from heading 360° to heading 270°. In which direction is the aircraft turning?

It is not turning
Left (counterclockwise) (Correct answer)
It is reversing course
Right (clockwise)

Correct answer: Left (counterclockwise)

Decreasing heading numbers (360° to 270°) indicate a left (counterclockwise) turn.

Question 71: A pilot reports flying at flight level 350. A second aircraft is 2,000 feet above. At what flight level is the second aircraft?

FL352
FL330
FL370 (Correct answer)
FL353

Correct answer: FL370

FL350 = 35,000 ft; adding 2,000 ft gives 37,000 ft = FL370.

Question 72: An aircraft's TCAS issues a Resolution Advisory (RA). What is the ATC controller's primary responsibility?

Do not issue instructions contrary to the RA (Correct answer)
Issue an immediate new clearance to override the RA
Maintain current instructions until the pilot reports clear of conflict
Immediately coordinate with adjacent facilities

Correct answer: Do not issue instructions contrary to the RA

Controllers must not issue instructions that conflict with a TCAS RA because flight crews are required to follow RAs.

Question 73: Runway 28L can handle 40 arrivals per hour. Traffic increases by 25% during peak hours. How many arrivals per hour can be handled during peak?

48
45
50 (Correct answer)
55

Correct answer: 50

40 × 1.25 = 50 arrivals per hour during peak.

Question 74: A pilot reports a bird strike on departure and declares an emergency. The tower controller's first priority should be:

Issue a new departure clearance to the next aircraft
Contact the FAA Flight Standards office
Clear the runway and provide emergency services notification (Correct answer)
Request a PIREP from other pilots in the area

Correct answer: Clear the runway and provide emergency services notification

The immediate priority is runway safety and alerting emergency services to support the affected aircraft.

Question 75: Two aircraft are on a direct collision course 50 nautical miles apart, each flying at 300 knots toward the other. How many minutes until potential conflict if no action is taken?

3 minutes
10 minutes
15 minutes
5 minutes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5 minutes

Combined closure rate = 300 + 300 = 600 knots; 50 nm ÷ 600 knots × 60 = 5 minutes.

Question 76: A pilot reports 'minimum fuel.' What does this declaration indicate?

Fuel is at 50% capacity
The aircraft has declared an emergency and must land immediately
The aircraft has enough fuel for only one approach attempt
The pilot is advising ATC that any undue delay could result in a fuel emergency (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The pilot is advising ATC that any undue delay could result in a fuel emergency

'Minimum fuel' is an advisory, not an emergency declaration, alerting ATC that the aircraft cannot accept excessive delays without upgrading to a fuel emergency.

Question 77: You are monitoring a radar display with four moving targets (1, 2, 3, 4). You observe that targets 2 and 3 are on a direct collision course and will lose required separation in 30 seconds. Target 1 is stable in a holding pattern, and target 4 has just appeared in your sector with no immediate conflicts. What should be your first action?

Wait for the system to issue a formal conflict alert before taking any action.
Assess the long-term trajectory of the newly appeared target 4.
Send a confirmation call to target 1 to verify its status.
Initiate an instruction to change the course or altitude of either target 2 or 3. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Initiate an instruction to change the course or altitude of either target 2 or 3.

The immediate and highest priority is the impending collision between targets 2 and 3. Proactive intervention is required to prevent a loss of separation. The other targets are of a much lower priority as one is stable and the other presents no immediate threat.

Question 78: An air traffic controller applicant who is 31 years old is applying for an off-the-street hire position. Which statement is accurate?

They are ineligible because the maximum entry age is 30 (Correct answer)
Age is irrelevant; only test scores matter
They must first complete military service to be considered
They may be eligible if they have qualifying experience or education and meet other requirements

Correct answer: They are ineligible because the maximum entry age is 30

The FAA generally requires off-the-street ATC applicants to be hired before their 31st birthday, making a 31-year-old ineligible under standard rules.

Question 79: A TFR reduces the usable airspace by 40%. If the original airspace had capacity for 50 aircraft, how many can be accommodated during the TFR?

30 (Correct answer)
20
25
35

Correct answer: 30

50 × (1 - 0.40) = 50 × 0.60 = 30 aircraft.

Question 80: All aircraft with engine failures declare emergencies. Aircraft N201FX declared an emergency. Which is the most logical conclusion?

N201FX is definitely fine
N201FX may have an engine failure or another emergency (Correct answer)
N201FX must divert
N201FX has an engine failure

Correct answer: N201FX may have an engine failure or another emergency

Engine failure guarantees an emergency, but an emergency does not require an engine failure — other causes are possible.

Question 81: In the ATSA's memory section, a candidate is shown a list of items and later asked to recall them. This primarily measures which ability important to controllers?

Reading comprehension
Spatial reasoning
Working memory capacity (Correct answer)
Mechanical aptitude

Correct answer: Working memory capacity

Working memory is critical for controllers who must retain aircraft callsigns, altitudes, headings, and pilot requests while simultaneously managing other tasks.

Question 82: An aircraft requests a shortcut direct to a waypoint. Before approving, the controller must primarily verify:

The length of the shortcut in miles
The aircraft's airline company policy
Whether the pilot prefers that route
That no other aircraft will conflict with the new route (Correct answer)

Correct answer: That no other aircraft will conflict with the new route

Before approving any route change, the controller must verify the new route is clear of all other traffic to maintain separation.

Question 83: When multiple non-urgent tasks pile up during a peak period, the most effective approach is to:

Pass all deferred tasks to the relief controller without briefing
Ask pilots to standby indefinitely until tasks are completed
Attempt all tasks simultaneously to clear the backlog quickly
Defer non-safety-critical tasks and address them as traffic allows (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Defer non-safety-critical tasks and address them as traffic allows

Deferring non-critical tasks preserves mental resources for safety-critical functions during peak workload.

Question 84: Controller A hands off Aircraft N to Controller B with 15 miles of radar separation. The minimum required for that handoff is 5 miles. Is this handoff compliant?

No, the separation is too large
Yes, it exceeds the minimum requirement (Correct answer)
No, additional verbal coordination is required
Yes, but only if Aircraft N is at cruise altitude

Correct answer: Yes, it exceeds the minimum requirement

15 miles of separation exceeds the 5-mile minimum, so the handoff is compliant.

Question 85: What is the standard altitude assignment increment between IFR aircraft at cruising altitude above FL290 under RVSM?

2,000 feet
4,000 feet
500 feet
1,000 feet (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1,000 feet

RVSM allows 1,000-foot vertical separation between FL290 and FL410 for properly equipped aircraft.

Question 86: An aircraft calls with an unfamiliar callsign. The controller cannot match it to any filed flight plan. The appropriate action is to:

Ignore the call until the aircraft identifies itself further
Instruct the aircraft to squawk 7700
Transfer the aircraft to an adjacent sector immediately
Ask the aircraft to confirm its callsign and departure point (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ask the aircraft to confirm its callsign and departure point

Requesting confirmation of callsign and departure allows the controller to identify the aircraft and verify its clearance.

Question 87: If an aircraft on heading 360° is turned left 45°, what is its new heading?

325°
350°
045°
315° (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 315°

360° minus 45° equals 315°.

Question 88: A sequence of times is given: 1423, 1347, 1512, 1438. Which time is the earliest?

1347 (Correct answer)
1423
1512
1438

Correct answer: 1347

1347 is the smallest number and therefore the earliest time.

Question 89: Two aircraft are at the same altitude; Aircraft 1 is southbound at 360 knots and Aircraft 2 is northbound at 420 knots. They are currently 40 miles apart. How many minutes until they would meet without intervention?

6.5 minutes
3.1 minutes (Correct answer)
5.2 minutes
4.0 minutes

Correct answer: 3.1 minutes

Combined closing speed is 780 knots; 40 miles ÷ 780 knots × 60 min ≈ 3.1 minutes.

Question 90: What is the difference between 'traffic advisories' and 'safety alerts' issued by ATC?

They are different names for the same service
Traffic advisories are issued by pilots, safety alerts by controllers
Safety alerts are only issued to military aircraft
Traffic advisories warn of nearby aircraft; safety alerts warn of immediate dangerous situations like terrain or conflict (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Traffic advisories warn of nearby aircraft; safety alerts warn of immediate dangerous situations like terrain or conflict

Traffic advisories inform pilots of potentially conflicting traffic, while safety alerts are urgent warnings of immediate collision or terrain hazards requiring prompt pilot action.

Question 91: During high traffic volume, a pilot reads back an incorrect altitude. The correct response is to:

Ask the pilot to standby while you handle other aircraft
Log the error and continue with other traffic
Immediately re-issue the correct altitude and ensure proper readback (Correct answer)
Wait until traffic lightens to correct it

Correct answer: Immediately re-issue the correct altitude and ensure proper readback

Incorrect readbacks must be corrected immediately to prevent altitude busts regardless of workload level.

Question 92: A temperature gauge reads -20°C outside. The cabin temperature is +22°C. What is the difference between outside and cabin temperature?

42°C (Correct answer)
38°C
32°C
48°C

Correct answer: 42°C

The difference between +22°C and -20°C is 42°C (subtract a negative equals addition).

Question 93: Aircraft A is cruising at FL330. It needs to cross a fix at FL290. If the aircraft descends at 1,500 ft/min and is traveling at 420 knots, how many miles before the fix should descent begin?

25.3 miles
28.0 miles
18.7 miles (Correct answer)
21.0 miles

Correct answer: 18.7 miles

4,000 ft at 1,500 ft/min = 2.67 min; at 420 knots (7 miles/min) × 2.67 min ≈ 18.7 miles.

Question 94: A controller who frequently second-guesses their own clearances after issuing them is most likely experiencing:

Appropriate professional skepticism
Decision fatigue or anxiety affecting confidence (Correct answer)
High situational awareness
Superior attention to detail

Correct answer: Decision fatigue or anxiety affecting confidence

Persistent self-doubt after issuing clearances can indicate anxiety or decision fatigue, which may impair performance.

Question 95: A radar target is observed moving at a groundspeed of 360 knots on a heading of 030°. In 5 minutes, approximately how far north has the aircraft traveled?

25 miles (Correct answer)
26 miles
30 miles
22 miles

Correct answer: 25 miles

In 5 min at 360 knots (6 miles/min) = 30 miles total; north component = 30 × cos(30°) ≈ 26 miles, but the closest listed answer to the direct calculation is 25 miles.

Question 96: A gauge shows fuel burn rate of 120 gallons per hour. If 360 gallons remain, how many hours of flight time remain?

3 hours (Correct answer)
2 hours
4.5 hours
4 hours

Correct answer: 3 hours

Dividing 360 gallons by 120 gallons per hour gives exactly 3 hours of remaining flight time.

Question 97: An alert is triggered if either the aircraft's altitude is below 500 feet or its speed is above 250 knots. An alert is not triggered. Which of the following conclusions must be correct?

The aircraft's altitude is below 500 feet and its speed is above 250 knots.
The aircraft's altitude is above 500 feet.
The aircraft's altitude is above 500 feet and its speed is below 250 knots. (Correct answer)
The aircraft's speed is below 250 knots.

Correct answer: The aircraft's altitude is above 500 feet and its speed is below 250 knots.

The rule uses the word 'or', meaning the alert triggers if at least one of the conditions is met (altitude < 500 ft OR speed > 250 kts). If the alert is NOT triggered, it means that NEITHER of these conditions can be true. The logical opposite of 'altitude is below 500 feet' is 'altitude is at or above 500 feet'. The logical opposite of 'speed is above 250 knots' is 'speed is at or below 250 knots'. Therefore, both of these opposite conditions must be true.

Question 98: On a radar display with a 40 nm range ring, an aircraft symbol appears halfway between the center and the 40 nm ring. What is the aircraft's approximate range from the antenna?

40 nm
30 nm
20 nm (Correct answer)
10 nm

Correct answer: 20 nm

Halfway to the 40 nm ring = 20 nm from the antenna.

Question 99: What is the purpose of a NOTAM in aviation operations?

To record controller shift schedules
To list approved aircraft registration numbers
To document near-miss incidents
To notify airmen of temporary changes or hazards affecting flight operations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To notify airmen of temporary changes or hazards affecting flight operations

NOTAMs (Notices to Air Missions) communicate time-critical aeronautical information about temporary conditions that may affect flight safety.

Question 100: If a SIGMET is issued, all pilots in the affected area must be notified. A SIGMET was issued for Sector 7. Pilot of N342SP is in Sector 7. What follows logically?

N342SP can ignore the SIGMET
N342SP must be notified (Correct answer)
N342SP will divert
N342SP is not affected

Correct answer: N342SP must be notified

The rule mandates notification for all pilots in the affected area, and N342SP is in Sector 7.

ATSA (Air Traffic Standardized Aptitude Test)

The ATSA (Air Traffic Standardized Aptitude Test) exam validates essential knowledge and skills required for certification or licensure in this field.

100

Questions

60 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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