AOA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield AOA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. How should professionals apply professional standards and ethics in daily practice? → Consistently integrate best practices into every aspect of professional work
2. What is the foundational principle of core concepts and principles in the AOA Board Certified field? → Maintaining competence, integrity, and service to stakeholders
3. What is the role of empathy in patient care? → Empathy enhances communication and trust between physician and patient
4. Which immunization is specifically recommended for healthcare workers to protect against occupational blood-borne pathogen exposure? → Hepatitis B vaccine
5. Which medication is a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) used as first-line therapy for GERD? → Omeprazole
6. What is Osteopathic Manipulative Medicine (OMM)? → A set of techniques focusing on the musculoskeletal system to improve health
7. Which occupational exposure is most strongly associated with mesothelioma? → Asbestos
8. Which treatment is recommended as preferred therapy for initial non-severe Clostridioides difficile infection (CDI) per current IDSA guidelines? → Oral vancomycin
9. What is somatic dysfunction? → It is an altered function in the musculoskeletal system
10. What ethical standard governs core concepts and principles practice? → Adherence to the profession's code of ethics and applicable laws and regulations
11. A 30-year-old woman has a serum calcium of 11.5 mg/dL. PTH is elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis? → Primary hyperparathyroidism
12. Which antibiotic class is contraindicated in pregnant women due to risk of fetal dental discoloration and impaired bone growth? → Tetracyclines
13. Which vaccine is recommended for adults aged 65 and older to prevent pneumococcal disease? → PCV20 alone or PCV15 followed by PPSV23
14. Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention? → Mammography screening for breast cancer
15. What is cranial osteopathy? → It is used to treat dysfunctions in the head, neck, and spine
16. Which laboratory finding is most characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? → Elevated D-dimer with prolonged PT and PTT
17. Which of the following is a core tenet of osteopathic medicine? → The body is capable of self-regulation, self-healing, and health maintenance.
18. The 'Five A’s' framework for tobacco cessation counseling includes Ask, Advise, Assess, Assist, and which fifth step? → Arrange
19. Why is cultural competence important in healthcare? → It helps providers deliver better care tailored to the patient's cultural needs
20. What BMI threshold defines obesity in adults according to standard clinical guidelines? → ≥ 30 kg/m²
21. What quality assurance measure supports professional standards and ethics? → Regular self-assessment, peer review, and adherence to established standards
22. In a patient with suspected systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), which antibody is most specific for the diagnosis? → Anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA)
23. Which of the following best describes herd immunity? → Indirect protection when a sufficient proportion of a population is immune
24. Which screening test is recommended for abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA) in men aged 65–75 who have ever smoked? → One-time abdominal ultrasound
25. Which drug is used as an opioid reversal agent in cases of overdose? → Naloxone
26. What is the specific antidote for acetaminophen overdose? → N-acetylcysteine (NAC)
27. What does the principle of non-maleficence mean in healthcare? → Healthcare providers should avoid causing harm to patients
28. Which of the following osteopathic manipulative techniques is classified as both indirect and passive? → Facilitated Positional Release (FPR)
29. What is the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors in treating hypertension? → Inhibit conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
30. Which direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) does NOT require routine INR monitoring? → Rivaroxaban (Xarelto)