FAA Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT) Airframe Knowledge Test — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which FAR part governs the airworthiness standards for aircraft electrical equipment?
- FAR Part 21
- FAR Part 23 (Correct answer)
- FAR Part 65
- FAR Part 91
Correct answer: FAR Part 23
FAR Part 23 establishes airworthiness standards for normal, utility, acrobatic, and commuter category airplanes, including electrical systems.
Question 2: An aircraft owner performs preventive maintenance under 14 CFR 43 Appendix A. Which record entry requirement applies?
- The owner must have an A&P cosign the entry
- No records are required for owner-performed work
- Records are only required if the work exceeds $500 in parts cost
- The owner must make an entry in the maintenance record describing the work and certifying it was done properly (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The owner must make an entry in the maintenance record describing the work and certifying it was done properly
14 CFR 43.9 requires all persons who perform maintenance, including owners doing preventive maintenance, to make a signed maintenance record entry.
Question 3: During a borescope inspection of a reciprocating engine cylinder, you observe a gray, sooty deposit on the piston crown. This is MOST indicative of:
- Normal combustion byproducts from a slightly rich mixture (Correct answer)
- Water contamination in the fuel
- Excessive valve guide wear
- Detonation damage
Correct answer: Normal combustion byproducts from a slightly rich mixture
Light gray sooty deposits on a piston crown are typical of rich mixture combustion and are generally within acceptable limits.
Question 4: What fluid is specified for most Boeing commercial aircraft hydraulic systems?
- Skydrol (phosphate ester) (Correct answer)
- Water-glycol
- MIL-PRF-83282 (synthetic hydrocarbon)
- MIL-PRF-5606 (red mineral oil)
Correct answer: Skydrol (phosphate ester)
Boeing commercial aircraft use Skydrol, a fire-resistant phosphate ester hydraulic fluid, to reduce fire risk in the event of a hydraulic leak.
Question 5: When bonding aircraft components, what maximum resistance is typically allowed between bonded parts?
- 0.003 ohm
- 0.05 ohm (Correct answer)
- 0.001 ohm
- 1.0 ohm
Correct answer: 0.05 ohm
FAA Advisory Circulars specify that bonding connections should not exceed 0.003 ohm to ensure effective static discharge and EMI shielding.
Question 6: What component prevents back-flow in a hydraulic line when downstream pressure exceeds upstream pressure?
- Relief valve
- Check valve (Correct answer)
- Flow restrictor
- Selector valve
Correct answer: Check valve
A check valve allows fluid flow in only one direction and closes automatically when downstream pressure exceeds upstream pressure, preventing back-flow.
Question 7: A reciprocating engine produces a consistent metallic knock that increases with engine load but decreases at higher RPM. This symptom most closely resembles:
- Valve float
- Crankshaft end-play
- Detonation
- Connecting rod bearing (big-end) knock (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Connecting rod bearing (big-end) knock
Big-end bearing knock typically increases with load (higher cylinder pressure forces) and can decrease at high RPM as oil centrifugal force improves bearing film.
Question 8: What is the importance of staying current with trends in Material Selection & Properties for Aircraft Maintenance Certification?
- Trends do not affect professional practice
- It ensures practices remain effective and relevant (Correct answer)
- It is not necessary once certified
- It is only required for new professionals
Correct answer: It ensures practices remain effective and relevant
Staying current with industry trends ensures that professional practices remain effective, relevant, and aligned with evolving standards.
Question 9: A nose wheel steering system is sluggish in both directions and the hydraulic pressure is normal. What should be investigated?
- Cockpit rudder pedal linkage adjustment
- Tire inflation pressure
- Steering actuator internal wear or restriction in the metering valve (Correct answer)
- Main landing gear shimmy damper
Correct answer: Steering actuator internal wear or restriction in the metering valve
Sluggish steering with normal system pressure suggests the actuator has internal wear or the metering/control valve has a restriction reducing flow rate.
Question 10: What does the abbreviation 'BL' represent in aircraft structural location designations?
- Baseline — the lowest structural reference point
- Butt Line — a lateral measurement from the aircraft centerline (Correct answer)
- Body Length — the total fuselage measurement
- Brake Line — hydraulic brake system routing
Correct answer: Butt Line — a lateral measurement from the aircraft centerline
BL (Butt Line) is the lateral distance measured left or right from the aircraft's longitudinal centerline, used to locate structural features spanwise.
Question 11: Which of the following is a proper precaution when working around aircraft radar systems?
- Use only leather gloves when testing the radar system
- Stand directly in front of the antenna during radiation pattern tests
- Ensure the radar is in standby or off mode before working within the beam sweep area (Correct answer)
- Radar energy is too low to pose a hazard to maintenance personnel
Correct answer: Ensure the radar is in standby or off mode before working within the beam sweep area
Active radar emits high-energy microwave radiation capable of causing internal tissue heating; personnel must remain clear of the antenna sweep and confirm the system is off or in standby.
Question 12: What does a negative arm value indicate in a weight and balance calculation?
- The item is located forward of the datum (Correct answer)
- The item exceeds the maximum allowable weight
- The item is above the aircraft's waterline
- The item is located aft of the datum
Correct answer: The item is located forward of the datum
A negative arm value means the item is located forward (ahead) of the datum, producing a negative moment that acts to move the CG forward.
Question 13: A static inverter in an aircraft converts:
- High voltage AC to low voltage AC
- 28V DC to 14V DC
- AC to DC
- DC to AC (Correct answer)
Correct answer: DC to AC
A static inverter converts DC power from the aircraft bus to AC power needed by instruments and avionics equipment.
Question 14: What is the function of an aircraft VOR receiver?
- Provides magnetic bearing to/from a VOR station (Correct answer)
- Tracks GPS satellite signals
- Measures distance to a ground station
- Receives weather data broadcasts
Correct answer: Provides magnetic bearing to/from a VOR station
A VOR receiver measures the phase difference between reference and variable signals to determine the aircraft's magnetic bearing to or from a VOR ground station.
Question 15: What information is typically found on an FAA Form 337?
- Pilot training records
- Major repair and alteration data including approved methods, materials, and approver information (Correct answer)
- Engine run-up test results
- Aircraft weight and balance data only
Correct answer: Major repair and alteration data including approved methods, materials, and approver information
FAA Form 337 is the Major Repair and Alteration form, documenting the work performed, method of compliance, and the approving authority.
Question 16: What is the primary advantage of a variable-displacement hydraulic pump over a fixed-displacement pump?
- Reduces flow when pressure demand is met, saving power and reducing heat (Correct answer)
- Lower initial cost
- Simpler internal design
- Higher pressure output capability
Correct answer: Reduces flow when pressure demand is met, saving power and reducing heat
Variable-displacement pumps reduce or eliminate output when system pressure is satisfied, saving engine power and reducing heat generation in the hydraulic fluid.
Question 17: What is the typical operating pressure range for a large transport aircraft hydraulic system?
- 1,500–2,000 psi
- 8,000–10,000 psi
- 3,000–5,000 psi (Correct answer)
- 500–1,000 psi
Correct answer: 3,000–5,000 psi
Large transport aircraft hydraulic systems typically operate between 3,000 and 5,000 psi, with many modern aircraft using 5,000 psi systems for reduced weight.
Question 18: What is the minimum wire bend radius typically specified to prevent conductor damage in aircraft wiring bundles?
- 1Ă— wire diameter
- 10Ă— wire diameter
- 5Ă— wire diameter
- 3Ă— wire diameter (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 3Ă— wire diameter
AC 43.13-1B specifies that aircraft wire should not be bent to a radius less than 3 times the wire's outside diameter to avoid insulation cracking and conductor fatigue.
Question 19: What does the term 'fatigue strength' refer to in aircraft materials?
- Stress level a material can withstand for an infinite number of cycles (Correct answer)
- Resistance to surface scratching
- Energy absorbed before fracture
- Maximum load before permanent deformation
Correct answer: Stress level a material can withstand for an infinite number of cycles
Fatigue strength is the stress level below which a material can endure an indefinitely large number of loading cycles without failing.
Question 20: What is the primary reason titanium alloys are used in aircraft engine compressor blades?
- High electrical conductivity
- Low cost and easy machinability
- Excellent corrosion resistance in fuel systems
- High strength-to-weight ratio and heat resistance (Correct answer)
Correct answer: High strength-to-weight ratio and heat resistance
Titanium alloys offer an exceptional strength-to-weight ratio combined with good heat resistance, making them ideal for compressor blades.
Question 21: What does PPE stand for in the context of Aircraft Maintenance Certification safety protocols?
- Project Planning Essentials
- Professional Performance Evaluation
- Public Policy Enforcement
- Personal Protective Equipment (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Personal Protective Equipment
PPE stands for Personal Protective Equipment, which includes items worn to minimize exposure to hazards that cause injuries.
Question 22: What is the purpose of a flux gate compass in an aircraft?
- Sense fuel quantity
- Regulate alternator field current
- Detect the Earth's magnetic field for heading reference (Correct answer)
- Measure static air pressure
Correct answer: Detect the Earth's magnetic field for heading reference
A flux gate compass uses electromagnetic induction to precisely sense the Earth's magnetic field, providing an accurate heading reference for remote indicating compasses and autopilots.
Question 23: What does a transponder Mode C provide to ATC?
- Aircraft position and heading
- Ground speed and track
- Aircraft identification only
- Pressure altitude and identification (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Pressure altitude and identification
Mode C transponders encode and transmit the aircraft's pressure altitude along with its squawk code to ATC radar.
Question 24: What must be included in an aircraft maintenance record after a repair?
- Only the name of the airline
- Only the aircraft tail number
- Only the type of repair performed
- Details of the work, completion date, and technician's signature (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Details of the work, completion date, and technician's signature
After any repair or inspection, proper maintenance record-keeping requires that the entry in the aircraft's logbook or maintenance record clearly describes the work performed. This entry must also include the date of completion and the signature and certificate number of the authorized technician. This ensures accountability, traceability, and compliance with aviation regulations, confirming the aircraft's airworthiness.
Question 25: What protection device should be used in an aircraft circuit rather than a fuse when repeated resetting may be required in flight?
- Thermal switch
- Zener diode
- Circuit breaker (Correct answer)
- Current limiter
Correct answer: Circuit breaker
Circuit breakers are preferred over fuses in circuits that may need to be reset in flight because they can be manually reset without replacement.
Question 26: An aircraft engine produces rough operation only on the left magneto during the runup magneto check. The MOST likely cause is:
- Left magneto impulse coupling worn past limits
- Left magneto P-lead is shorted to ground
- One or more spark plugs assigned to the left magneto are fouled or failed (Correct answer)
- Timing on the right magneto has advanced excessively
Correct answer: One or more spark plugs assigned to the left magneto are fouled or failed
Rough running isolated to one magneto during the drop check most commonly indicates a fouled or failed spark plug on that magneto's circuit.
Question 27: What is benchmarking in the context of Aircraft Maintenance Certification quality management?
- Setting minimum acceptable standards
- Recording daily activities
- Testing equipment functionality
- Comparing performance against best practices or competitors (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Comparing performance against best practices or competitors
Benchmarking involves comparing your processes and performance metrics to industry best practices to identify improvement areas.
Question 28: Before working on an aircraft radar system, a technician must ensure the:
- Radar is powered on for warm-up
- Antenna is pointed skyward
- Battery is fully charged
- Radar is de-energized and capacitors discharged (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Radar is de-energized and capacitors discharged
Aircraft radar systems store lethal high-voltage charges in capacitors that must be discharged before maintenance to prevent electrocution.
Question 29: When must an IA use a currently effective FAA-approved Airplane Flight Manual (AFM) supplement during an annual inspection?
- Only when the aircraft has been involved in an accident
- When inspecting aircraft equipped with STCs that require an AFM supplement (Correct answer)
- When the aircraft is operated under Part 135
- Only when the engine has been overhauled
Correct answer: When inspecting aircraft equipped with STCs that require an AFM supplement
STCs that affect aircraft operating limitations or performance require an AFM supplement, which the IA must verify is present and current during the annual.
Question 30: Why must composite repair patches typically be tapered (scarfed or stepped) rather than having abrupt edges?
- To reduce the weight of the repair patch
- To distribute load transfer gradually and minimize stress concentrations at patch boundaries (Correct answer)
- To allow moisture to escape from the repair area
- To comply with visual inspection requirements only
Correct answer: To distribute load transfer gradually and minimize stress concentrations at patch boundaries
Tapered or stepped patch edges distribute the shear load transfer over a length rather than concentrating it at a single discontinuity, preventing edge delamination.
Question 31: When bleeding a hydraulic system, why must air be completely removed?
- Air accelerates seal wear only
- Air is compressible and causes spongy, unpredictable actuator response (Correct answer)
- Air causes fluid to overheat only
- Air increases fluid viscosity
Correct answer: Air is compressible and causes spongy, unpredictable actuator response
Air is compressible unlike hydraulic fluid, so trapped air causes spongy, inconsistent actuator movement and can lead to unsafe control responses.
Question 32: During engine teardown, a turbine blade is found with tip rub marks. Per typical maintenance manuals, this blade should be:
- Polished smooth and reinstalled
- Replaced automatically regardless of depth
- Replaced if rub depth exceeds the serviceable limit (Correct answer)
- Inspected visually only and approved if no cracks found
Correct answer: Replaced if rub depth exceeds the serviceable limit
Tip rub is evaluated against published serviceable limits; blades within limits may be returned to service, but those exceeding limits must be replaced.
Question 33: What is the standard voltage for most general aviation aircraft DC electrical systems?
- 24 volts
- 12 volts
- 28 volts (Correct answer)
- 48 volts
Correct answer: 28 volts
Most general aviation aircraft use a 28-volt DC electrical system, which is the FAA and MIL-SPEC standard.
Question 34: What document provides the minimum inspection requirements for an aircraft under a progressive inspection program?
- 14 CFR Part 91 Appendix D
- AC 43.13-1B only
- The aircraft's Pilot's Operating Handbook
- An FAA-approved inspection program specific to that aircraft (Correct answer)
Correct answer: An FAA-approved inspection program specific to that aircraft
A progressive inspection must follow an FAA-approved program that identifies inspection items, intervals, and procedures for that specific aircraft.
Question 35: What is the correct procedure when mixing different brands of the same type of hydraulic fluid (e.g., Skydrol 500B-4 and Skydrol LD-4)?
- Mixing is acceptable if both are phosphate ester type
- Drain, flush, and refill — different brands must not be mixed
- Check with the aircraft manufacturer's CMM before mixing (Correct answer)
- Add a fluid conditioner before mixing
Correct answer: Check with the aircraft manufacturer's CMM before mixing
Even similar-type hydraulic fluids can have additive packages that interact adversely, so the aircraft manufacturer's Component Maintenance Manual must be consulted before mixing brands.
Question 36: On an aircraft structural drawing, what does 'FS 247.5' designate?
- Fastener Size 247.5 series
- Frame Spacing of 247.5 millimeters
- Fuselage Station 247.5 inches from the datum reference point (Correct answer)
- Fuel System line 247.5
Correct answer: Fuselage Station 247.5 inches from the datum reference point
FS refers to Fuselage Station, a measurement in inches from the aircraft's forward datum to locate structural positions along the fuselage.
Question 37: Minimum equipment lists (MELs) for air carrier aircraft derive their authority from:
- The manufacturer's Flight Crew Operating Manual
- The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) approved by the FAA for that aircraft type (Correct answer)
- The pilot in command's discretion
- 14 CFR Part 91 Appendix G
Correct answer: The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) approved by the FAA for that aircraft type
Airline MELs must be based on the FAA-approved MMEL for the specific aircraft type and then approved by the FAA for each operator.
Question 38: What type of wire is required in aircraft electrical systems to prevent fire hazard in fuel tank areas?
- PVC-insulated wire
- Bare copper wire
- Aluminum wire
- Teflon-insulated wire (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Teflon-insulated wire
Teflon (PTFE)-insulated wire is required near fuel tanks because it is highly resistant to fuel, heat, and flame.
Question 39: What condition does 'intergranular corrosion' specifically affect in aluminum aircraft structure?
- The anodized coating on control surface hinges
- The grain boundaries within the metal, weakening it from the inside (Correct answer)
- Only ferrous metal fittings attached to aluminum structure
- Only the painted outer surface of the skin
Correct answer: The grain boundaries within the metal, weakening it from the inside
Intergranular corrosion attacks along grain boundaries of the alloy, reducing structural strength significantly while often showing minimal surface evidence.
Question 40: Which tool is used to measure the internal diameter of a cylinder bore in an aircraft engine?
- Outside micrometer
- Telescoping gauge and micrometer (Correct answer)
- Vernier caliper only
- Dial test indicator
Correct answer: Telescoping gauge and micrometer
A telescoping gauge is inserted into the bore and then measured with an outside micrometer to determine the internal diameter accurately.
Question 41: What does the term 'lockout/tagout' (LOTO) specifically prevent during aircraft maintenance?
- Foreign object debris entering engines
- Corrosion on control surfaces
- Fuel system overpressurization during fueling
- Unexpected energization or release of stored energy (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Unexpected energization or release of stored energy
LOTO procedures isolate energy sources—electrical, hydraulic, pneumatic, or mechanical—to prevent accidental startup or energy release while personnel work on equipment.
Question 42: Which type of stainless steel is most commonly used for aircraft exhaust components due to its high-temperature oxidation resistance?
- Austenitic stainless steel (Correct answer)
- Ferritic stainless steel
- Martensitic stainless steel
- Precipitation-hardening stainless steel
Correct answer: Austenitic stainless steel
Austenitic stainless steels (300 series) maintain strength and resist oxidation at elevated temperatures, making them suitable for exhaust systems.
Question 43: When working in a confined space on an aircraft, what is the minimum requirement before entry?
- Notifying the crew chief verbally
- A buddy system only
- Wearing a hard hat and gloves
- Atmospheric testing for oxygen, flammable, and toxic gases (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Atmospheric testing for oxygen, flammable, and toxic gases
Confined space entry requires atmospheric testing to confirm oxygen levels (19.5–23.5%) and absence of hazardous gases before anyone enters.
Question 44: What is the function of a hydraulic accumulator?
- Cool hydraulic fluid
- Measure system pressure
- Store pressurized fluid and dampen pressure surges (Correct answer)
- Filter contaminants from fluid
Correct answer: Store pressurized fluid and dampen pressure surges
A hydraulic accumulator stores pressurized fluid under a pre-charged gas pressure to supplement pump output during peak demands and dampen pressure spikes.
Question 45: An ammeter that reads on the discharge side of zero indicates the aircraft battery is:
- Disconnected from the bus
- Being charged by the alternator
- Discharging to supply the bus (Correct answer)
- Fully charged and at rest
Correct answer: Discharging to supply the bus
A negative (discharge) ammeter reading means the battery is supplying current to the bus because the alternator output is insufficient.
Question 46: How is CG location calculated?
- CG = Total Weight Ă— Total Arm
- CG = Total Moment Ă· Total Weight (Correct answer)
- CG = Total Weight Ă· Total Moment
- CG = Total Moment Ă— Total Weight
Correct answer: CG = Total Moment Ă· Total Weight
CG location is found by dividing the total moment (sum of all moments) by the total weight, giving the CG in inches from the datum.
Question 47: An aircraft ELT must be tested in accordance with:
- FAR 91.207 — within first 5 minutes of each UTC hour, for no more than 3 audio sweeps (Correct answer)
- FAR 43.15 — during each annual inspection only
- FAR 91.207 — within first 5 minutes of each UTC hour
- FAR 91.409 — annually with IFR equipment
Correct answer: FAR 91.207 — within first 5 minutes of each UTC hour, for no more than 3 audio sweeps
FAR 91.207 permits ELT functional testing only within the first 5 minutes of each UTC hour, limited to 3 audible sweeps to avoid false alarm reports.
Question 48: What does 'passivation' of stainless steel components involve?
- Immersing in nitric or citric acid solution to remove free iron and enhance the chromium oxide layer (Correct answer)
- Applying anodic coating by electrolysis
- Heating in an inert atmosphere to create a surface oxide
- Coating with zinc-chromate primer
Correct answer: Immersing in nitric or citric acid solution to remove free iron and enhance the chromium oxide layer
Passivation removes surface iron contamination with an acid bath, allowing chromium to form a dense, continuous oxide layer that resists corrosion.
Question 49: In a FAR Part 121 air carrier operation, which document defines the minimum equipment that must be operational for dispatch?
- The Master Minimum Equipment List (MMEL) only
- The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) (Correct answer)
- The Aircraft Flight Manual limitations section
- The carrier's General Operations Manual
Correct answer: The Minimum Equipment List (MEL)
The airline's FAA-approved Minimum Equipment List (MEL) defines which inoperative items allow dispatch and the conditions and procedures required.
Question 50: Which component converts AC generator output to DC for aircraft bus use?
- Rectifier/TRU (Correct answer)
- Voltage regulator
- Transformer
- Inverter
Correct answer: Rectifier/TRU
A Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU) steps down AC voltage and converts it to DC for the aircraft's DC bus.
Question 51: Which document authorizes return-to-service after a major repair on a certificated aircraft?
- FAA Form 8710-1
- FAA Form 8060-4
- FAA Form 8130-3
- FAA Form 337 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: FAA Form 337
FAA Form 337 (Major Repair and Alteration) must be completed and submitted to the FAA for major repairs on certificated aircraft.
Question 52: What is the purpose of a hydraulic system relief valve?
- Separate fluid from air
- Control actuator speed
- Limit maximum system pressure to protect components (Correct answer)
- Reduce flow to actuators
Correct answer: Limit maximum system pressure to protect components
A relief valve opens to return fluid to the reservoir when system pressure exceeds the set maximum, protecting pumps, actuators, and lines from over-pressurization.
Question 53: What is the purpose of a 'LIST OF MATERIALS' or 'BILL OF MATERIALS' (BOM) on an aircraft assembly drawing?
- To identify each part number, quantity, material spec, and description of items in the assembly (Correct answer)
- To record the cost of each component for procurement purposes
- To list all raw materials approved by the FAA for aircraft construction
- To document the inspection requirements for each assembly step
Correct answer: To identify each part number, quantity, material spec, and description of items in the assembly
The BOM (Bill of Materials) on an assembly drawing lists every item in the assembly with its part number, quantity required, material specification, and description.
Question 54: A hydraulic pump that delivers a fixed volume of fluid per revolution regardless of system pressure is called:
- Variable-displacement pump
- Demand pump
- Fixed-displacement (constant delivery) pump (Correct answer)
- Electric motor pump
Correct answer: Fixed-displacement (constant delivery) pump
A fixed-displacement pump delivers the same volume per revolution regardless of system pressure; excess flow must be relieved or unloaded.
Question 55: When using a hand file on an aircraft aluminum part, the technician should use:
- A single-cut mill file for smooth finishing cuts (Correct answer)
- A rasp file for precision work
- A rotary file at high speed for aluminum
- A double-cut file for finishing
Correct answer: A single-cut mill file for smooth finishing cuts
A single-cut mill file produces smooth, fine finishing cuts on aluminum and prevents loading (clogging) that double-cut files can cause on soft metals.
Question 56: Which seal material is NOT compatible with Skydrol hydraulic fluid?
- Buna-N (nitrile) rubber (Correct answer)
- Teflon (PTFE)
- Butyl rubber
- Ethylene propylene (EPDM)
Correct answer: Buna-N (nitrile) rubber
Nitrile (Buna-N) seals swell and deteriorate rapidly when exposed to Skydrol phosphate ester fluid and must not be used in these systems.
Question 57: When installing a bonding jumper to an airframe structure, what surface preparation is required?
- Remove all paint and anodizing from the contact area (Correct answer)
- Apply corrosion-inhibiting compound before bonding
- Clean with solvent only, leaving primer intact
- Paint the contact surfaces before attaching
Correct answer: Remove all paint and anodizing from the contact area
Bare metal-to-metal contact is required for effective electrical bonding; paint and anodizing must be removed from the mating surfaces.
Question 58: Under 14 CFR Part 91.409, what is the maximum interval between required 100-hour inspections for an aircraft operated for hire?
- 90 hours
- 125 hours
- 110 hours (Correct answer)
- 100 hours
Correct answer: 110 hours
14 CFR 91.409(b) allows up to 10 hours over the 100-hour interval if necessary to reach a maintenance facility, making the maximum 110 hours.
Question 59: What is a primary function of an Aircraft Maintenance Program (AMP)?
- To schedule pilot training intervals
- To authorize mechanics to perform inspections
- To define the scheduled maintenance tasks and intervals required to maintain airworthiness (Correct answer)
- To track aircraft fuel consumption
Correct answer: To define the scheduled maintenance tasks and intervals required to maintain airworthiness
An AMP defines the required scheduled maintenance tasks, intervals, and inspection requirements to ensure continued airworthiness.
Question 60: What is the purpose of an aircraft logbook in maintenance procedures?
- To schedule flight routes
- To track maintenance history and compliance (Correct answer)
- To store aircraft fuel data
- To record passenger complaints
Correct answer: To track maintenance history and compliance
An aircraft logbook is a vital legal document that meticulously records all maintenance, repairs, modifications, and inspections performed on an aircraft throughout its operational life. It serves as a comprehensive history, ensuring compliance with airworthiness directives and regulatory standards, and is essential for determining the aircraft's current status and value.
Question 61: Which OSHA standard primarily governs hazard communication (HazCom) and Safety Data Sheets in an aircraft maintenance shop?
- 29 CFR 1910.119
- 29 CFR 1910.1200 (Correct answer)
- 14 CFR 65.81
- 49 CFR 172.101
Correct answer: 29 CFR 1910.1200
29 CFR 1910.1200 is OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard, requiring SDS availability and employee training on chemical hazards.
Question 62: A technician is installing a new fuel selector valve. After installation, what is the FIRST check to perform?
- Perform a full fuel system pressure test
- Confirm the valve operates through all positions without binding (Correct answer)
- Verify correct safety wiring on all fittings
- Check for fuel leaks with the system pressurized
Correct answer: Confirm the valve operates through all positions without binding
Valve freedom of movement must be verified before any pressure is applied to ensure no binding or interference that could prevent proper fuel selection.
Question 63: When reinstalling a turbine engine fuel nozzle, the torque value listed in the manufacturer's manual is considered:
- A maximum value only
- Advisory and may be adjusted by the mechanic
- A minimum value only
- A specific value with defined tolerance (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A specific value with defined tolerance
Manufacturer-specified torque values for fuel nozzles are specific values with tolerances that must be followed exactly to ensure proper seating and prevent leaks.
Question 64: What is the purpose of a bootstrap reservoir in an aircraft hydraulic system?
- Filter return line fluid
- Store emergency fluid supply at low pressure
- Separate air from hydraulic fluid
- Pressurize the reservoir using system hydraulic pressure (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Pressurize the reservoir using system hydraulic pressure
A bootstrap reservoir uses system hydraulic pressure applied to a piston to pressurize the reservoir, ensuring positive pump inlet pressure at altitude where atmospheric pressure is low.
Question 65: When using a rivet gun on an aircraft skin, the bucking bar should be held:
- At a 45-degree angle to the rivet
- Firmly and squarely against the rivet shank (Correct answer)
- Against the manufactured head of the rivet
- Loosely to allow vibration absorption
Correct answer: Firmly and squarely against the rivet shank
The bucking bar must be held firmly and squarely against the rivet shank to form a proper shop head and prevent rivet damage.
Question 66: When replacing an aircraft antenna coaxial cable, what must be verified after installation?
- VSWR (Voltage Standing Wave Ratio) (Correct answer)
- Connector pin count
- Cable temperature rating only
- Cable color coding
Correct answer: VSWR (Voltage Standing Wave Ratio)
VSWR must be measured after coaxial cable replacement to verify proper impedance matching and antenna system efficiency.
Question 67: Aircraft pneumatic systems typically use which gas as the working medium?
- Nitrogen or filtered, dried air (Correct answer)
- Oxygen
- Hydrogen
- Carbon dioxide
Correct answer: Nitrogen or filtered, dried air
Aircraft pneumatic systems use dry nitrogen or filtered, moisture-free air to prevent corrosion and ice formation in valves and actuators.
Question 68: Which of the following correctly describes a 'buddy system' as used in aviation maintenance safety?
- Two mechanics signing off the same logbook entry
- Two technicians sharing the same task card to speed up work
- A training requirement where a new hire shadows a licensed mechanic for 90 days
- One technician monitoring another during hazardous operations such as confined space entry or working at height (Correct answer)
Correct answer: One technician monitoring another during hazardous operations such as confined space entry or working at height
A buddy system pairs a working technician with an observer during high-risk tasks to provide immediate assistance or emergency response if an incident occurs.
Question 69: A technician finds a cracked engine mount on a small GA aircraft during a 100-hour inspection. The engine mount is classified as a:
- Principal Structural Element requiring FAA-approved repair data (Correct answer)
- Cosmetic deficiency deferrable to the next annual inspection
- Minor repair item correctable using AC 43.13 standard practices
- Component requiring only a logbook entry before return to service
Correct answer: Principal Structural Element requiring FAA-approved repair data
Engine mounts are Principal Structural Elements (PSEs); any crack requires FAA-approved repair data and cannot be addressed with generic standard practices alone.
Question 70: Which regulatory reference establishes weight and balance requirements for certificated aircraft maintenance?
- 14 CFR Part 91 only
- AC 43.13-1B only
- 14 CFR Part 65
- 14 CFR Part 43 and the aircraft's approved Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 14 CFR Part 43 and the aircraft's approved Type Certificate Data Sheet (TCDS)
14 CFR Part 43 governs maintenance requirements, and the aircraft's TCDS contains FAA-approved weight and balance limits and data specific to the aircraft type.
Question 71: A mechanic installs a used serviceable component that has no maintenance records. Under FAA standards, this component:
- May be installed if it visually appears undamaged
- Can be installed with a logbook note that records are unavailable
- Is acceptable under the owner-produced parts rule
- Cannot be installed because traceability to an approved source is required (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cannot be installed because traceability to an approved source is required
FAA regulations require aircraft parts to have traceability to an approved production or maintenance source; parts without records are not considered airworthy.
Question 72: When respirator use is required in an aviation maintenance facility, what must the employer provide before a worker is assigned a respirator?
- A hearing test and blood pressure check
- A 40-hour respirator training course
- A medical evaluation to determine the worker's fitness to wear a respirator (Correct answer)
- Written authorization from the FAA Safety Officer
Correct answer: A medical evaluation to determine the worker's fitness to wear a respirator
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.134 requires a physician or other licensed health-care professional (PLHCP) medical evaluation before initial respirator assignment to ensure the worker can safely tolerate the physiological demands.
Question 73: Which document defines the approved avionics equipment for a specific aircraft?
- FAR Part 91
- Aircraft Equipment List / AFMS (Correct answer)
- Pilot Operating Handbook only
- AC 43.13-1B
Correct answer: Aircraft Equipment List / AFMS
The Aircraft Equipment List or Approved Flight Manual Supplement (AFMS) documents which avionics are approved for installation on a specific aircraft.
Question 74: What is the primary goal of quality assurance in Aircraft Maintenance Certification?
- Completing tasks as quickly as possible
- Reducing staff numbers
- Finding someone to blame for errors
- Ensuring consistent standards and continuous improvement (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Ensuring consistent standards and continuous improvement
Quality assurance focuses on maintaining consistent standards and identifying opportunities for continuous improvement in processes and outcomes.
Question 75: Which type of corrosion is most commonly found on aluminum aircraft structures?
- Galvanic corrosion
- Uniform corrosion
- Intergranular corrosion
- Pitting corrosion (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Pitting corrosion
Pitting corrosion is a localized form of corrosion that creates small holes or pits on the surface of a metal, commonly found on aluminum aircraft structures. It is particularly dangerous because it can penetrate deeply into the material, significantly weakening the structure even with minimal visible surface damage, making it a critical concern in aircraft maintenance.
Question 76: Which FAA order provides guidance to aviation safety inspectors on airworthiness certification?
- FAA Order 8110.4
- FAA Order 8130.2 (Correct answer)
- FAA Order 8700.1
- FAA Order 8900.1
Correct answer: FAA Order 8130.2
FAA Order 8130.2 (Airworthiness Certification of Aircraft and Related Products) guides inspectors on issuing airworthiness certificates.
Question 77: In Aircraft Maintenance Certification, what is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?
- A compliance checklist
- A financial penalty for poor performance
- A mandatory training requirement
- A measurable value that demonstrates effectiveness (Correct answer)
Correct answer: A measurable value that demonstrates effectiveness
KPIs are quantifiable measurements that demonstrate how effectively objectives are being achieved.
Question 78: What is intergranular corrosion and which aluminum alloy family is most susceptible?
- Stress-induced cracking; 6xxx series
- Corrosion along grain boundaries; 2xxx series (Correct answer)
- Uniform surface attack; 1xxx series
- Surface pitting from chlorides; 7xxx series
Correct answer: Corrosion along grain boundaries; 2xxx series
Intergranular corrosion attacks grain boundaries preferentially; 2xxx series (copper-alloyed) aluminum alloys are particularly susceptible when improperly heat-treated.
Question 79: Before performing maintenance on an aircraft hydraulic system, what is the first action a technician must take?
- Bleed the accumulator
- Change the hydraulic filter
- Depressurize the system and verify zero pressure (Correct answer)
- Top off the reservoir
Correct answer: Depressurize the system and verify zero pressure
The system must be fully depressurized and pressure verified at zero before opening any hydraulic line to prevent fluid injection injury or component ejection.
Question 80: How is hydraulic fluid contamination level typically classified in aircraft maintenance?
- By NAS 1638 or ISO 4406 cleanliness codes (Correct answer)
- By MIL-SPEC gravity rating
- By color and viscosity only
- By FAR Part 43 fluid specs
Correct answer: By NAS 1638 or ISO 4406 cleanliness codes
NAS 1638 and ISO 4406 cleanliness codes classify hydraulic fluid contamination by counting particle sizes per unit volume using automated particle counters.
Question 81: During an annual inspection, a mechanic discovers a 2-inch crack in the firewall. The CORRECT action is to:
- Issue a ferry permit for the aircraft to fly to a certified repair station
- Repair per the aircraft manufacturer's structural repair manual before returning to service (Correct answer)
- Apply fireproof sealant and re-inspect at the next 100-hour
- Stop-drill each end and document in the maintenance record
Correct answer: Repair per the aircraft manufacturer's structural repair manual before returning to service
Firewall damage is a structural and fire-safety issue; repair must be accomplished per the manufacturer's SRM before the aircraft is returned to service.
Question 82: What is the purpose of a Mechanical Interruption Summary (MIS) report?
- To track daily maintenance inspections
- To record scheduled component removals
- To document unscheduled engine shutdowns or diversions (Correct answer)
- To authorize overtime maintenance work
Correct answer: To document unscheduled engine shutdowns or diversions
A Mechanical Interruption Summary records unscheduled engine shutdowns, flight diversions, and air turnbacks caused by mechanical issues.
Question 83: What wire gauge system is used for aircraft electrical wire sizing?
- SWG (Standard Wire Gauge)
- IEC 60228
- Metric cross-section (mm²)
- AWG (American Wire Gauge) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: AWG (American Wire Gauge)
AWG (American Wire Gauge) is the standard system used for aircraft electrical wire sizing in the United States per FAA guidance.
Question 84: What is the purpose of a hydraulic fuse in an aircraft system?
- Regulate pump output pressure
- Filter large particles from fluid
- Automatically shut off flow when excessive flow rate indicates a leak (Correct answer)
- Indicate low fluid level
Correct answer: Automatically shut off flow when excessive flow rate indicates a leak
A hydraulic fuse senses an abnormally high flow rate (indicating a downstream rupture or leak) and closes automatically to isolate the failed section and conserve fluid.
Question 85: Which FAA document defines the airworthiness standards for transport category airplanes?
- 14 CFR Part 25 (Correct answer)
- 14 CFR Part 29
- 14 CFR Part 27
- 14 CFR Part 23
Correct answer: 14 CFR Part 25
14 CFR Part 25 establishes airworthiness standards specifically for transport category airplanes.
Question 86: When is an Airworthiness Directive (AD) considered complied with?
- When the manufacturer issues a service bulletin addressing the same issue
- When the mechanic reads and understands the AD
- When the aircraft owner signs the aircraft logbook
- When the specified corrective action is completed and documented in the maintenance record (Correct answer)
Correct answer: When the specified corrective action is completed and documented in the maintenance record
An AD is complied with only when the required corrective action is fully accomplished and properly recorded in the aircraft maintenance records.
Question 87: What is the correct action if a technician's clothing becomes saturated with Skydrol hydraulic fluid?
- Remove contaminated clothing immediately and flush affected skin with water for 15 minutes (Correct answer)
- Wipe off excess fluid with a dry rag and apply protective cream
- Report it to the supervisor only, as Skydrol is non-toxic
- Continue working and remove the clothing at the end of the shift
Correct answer: Remove contaminated clothing immediately and flush affected skin with water for 15 minutes
Skydrol is a skin and eye irritant; contaminated clothing must be removed immediately and skin flushed thoroughly to prevent chemical burns.
Question 88: A dye penetrant inspection kit used in aircraft maintenance must be stored:
- In direct sunlight to maintain chemical activity
- Near the aircraft to reduce handling time
- Away from heat sources and in accordance with the manufacturer's temperature range (Correct answer)
- In the same cabinet as flammable solvents for convenience
Correct answer: Away from heat sources and in accordance with the manufacturer's temperature range
Dye penetrant chemicals are temperature-sensitive and may be flammable, so they must be stored within the manufacturer's specified temperature range away from ignition sources.
Question 89: An aircraft maintenance technician must have how many recent experience hours to legally exercise A&P privileges?
- 500 hours total time
- 1,000 hours within the past 24 months
- At least 1 month of work in the past 24 months on aircraft
- At least 6 months of work experience in the past 24 months (Correct answer)
Correct answer: At least 6 months of work experience in the past 24 months
14 CFR 65.83 requires a mechanic to have served at least 6 months in their certificate's area within the preceding 24 months to exercise privileges.
Question 90: An exhaust gas temperature (EGT) exceedance occurs during takeoff. After returning to maintenance, the first required action is:
- Perform a full borescope inspection immediately
- Perform a ground run to verify EGT is now within limits
- Replace all turbine blades automatically
- Record the peak EGT and duration, then consult the engine manufacturer's exceedance guide (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Record the peak EGT and duration, then consult the engine manufacturer's exceedance guide
The manufacturer's exceedance guide specifies required actions based on peak temperature and duration; the technician must first document the event before taking any further action.
Question 91: What does 'traceability' mean in the context of aviation parts quality control?
- The ability to trace a part's origin, manufacture, and maintenance history through documentation (Correct answer)
- Monitoring an aircraft's fuel consumption throughout a flight
- The process of matching paint colors to original manufacturer specifications
- The ability to track an aircraft's GPS position at all times
Correct answer: The ability to trace a part's origin, manufacture, and maintenance history through documentation
Traceability in aviation QC means complete documentation exists linking a part to its raw material, manufacturing process, and all subsequent maintenance events.
Question 92: Which approach best supports quality outcomes in Troubleshooting & Diagnostics for Aircraft Maintenance Certification?
- Avoiding quality checks
- Rushing through tasks
- Relying solely on intuition
- Systematic application of evidence-based methods (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Systematic application of evidence-based methods
Evidence-based methods provide a reliable foundation for achieving consistent, high-quality outcomes.
Question 93: Which pneumatic system component removes moisture from compressed air before it enters the distribution system?
- Pressure relief valve
- Pressure regulator
- Air dryer/moisture separator (Correct answer)
- Check valve
Correct answer: Air dryer/moisture separator
An air dryer or moisture separator removes water vapor from compressed air to prevent corrosion, ice formation, and valve freezing in the pneumatic distribution system.
Question 94: What condition does a hydraulic system ground test must verify before return to service after seal replacement?
- Accumulator pre-charge pressure only
- No external leaks at operating pressure and correct actuator travel (Correct answer)
- Filter bypass indicator has not popped
- Fluid color returns to original
Correct answer: No external leaks at operating pressure and correct actuator travel
A post-maintenance ground test must confirm no external leaks at full operating pressure and verify that all affected actuators move through their correct range of travel.
Question 95: Before using an abrasive wheel on a bench grinder in the hangar, what inspection is required?
- Check only the RPM rating on the wheel
- Inspect the power cord for fraying
- Visual inspection and ring test (tap test) to detect cracks (Correct answer)
- No inspection is needed if the wheel was used the previous day
Correct answer: Visual inspection and ring test (tap test) to detect cracks
A visual inspection combined with a ring (tap) test—a clear ring indicates an intact wheel; a dull thud indicates cracks—must be performed before each use per OSHA 1910.215.
Question 96: What is the primary purpose of a current limiter in an aircraft electrical circuit?
- Increase circuit ampacity
- Balance multiple bus bars
- Regulate voltage output
- Protect wiring from overload (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Protect wiring from overload
A current limiter (fusible link) opens the circuit to protect wiring from damage caused by excessive current flow.
Question 97: Which tool is commonly used for root cause analysis in Aircraft Maintenance Certification?
- Fishbone (Ishikawa) diagram (Correct answer)
- Organizational chart
- Profit and loss statement
- Gantt chart
Correct answer: Fishbone (Ishikawa) diagram
The fishbone diagram helps identify potential causes of a problem by organizing them into categories, revealing root causes.
Question 98: What is 'MAC' (Mean Aerodynamic Chord) used for in weight and balance?
- Determining fuel tank capacity
- Calculating total engine thrust output
- Measuring propeller blade length
- Expressing CG location as a percentage of the wing chord for transport-category aircraft (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Expressing CG location as a percentage of the wing chord for transport-category aircraft
For transport-category aircraft, CG is often expressed as a percentage of MAC, which relates the CG position to the aerodynamic characteristics of the wing.
Question 99: Which of the following best describes confidentiality in Aircraft Maintenance Certification?
- Protecting sensitive information from unauthorized disclosure (Correct answer)
- Sharing information freely with everyone
- Keeping all information secret permanently
- Only sharing information verbally
Correct answer: Protecting sensitive information from unauthorized disclosure
Confidentiality involves protecting sensitive information and only sharing it with authorized parties who need it.
Question 100: What causes hydraulic fluid to appear milky or foamy?
- Overheating only
- Water contamination (Correct answer)
- Seal degradation only
- Metal particle contamination
Correct answer: Water contamination
Water contamination causes hydraulic fluid to appear milky or foamy due to emulsification, which degrades lubrication and can cause corrosion and ice formation.
FAA Aviation Maintenance Technician (AMT) Airframe Knowledge Test
The FAA AMT Airframe (AMA) knowledge test evaluates candidates on airframe structures, hydraulic and pneumatic systems, electrical and avionics systems, and maintenance inspection and documentation required to earn an FAA Aviation Mechanic certificate with Airframe rating.
Exam Rules
- You can skip questions and return to them later
- Flag questions for review before submitting
- No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
- Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
- 10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
- Timer auto-submits when time runs out
- Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds