AHA Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support (ACLS) Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What harm might hyperventilation cause?

Increase intrathoracic pressure
Reduce the heart's venous return
All of the above (Correct answer)
Reduce cardiac output

Correct answer: All of the above

Hyperventilation during CPR is detrimental because it increases intrathoracic pressure, which in turn reduces venous return to the heart. This decreased venous return leads to a reduction in cardiac output and cerebral perfusion, effectively counteracting the benefits of chest compressions. Therefore, excessive ventilation should be avoided to optimize blood flow and improve outcomes during resuscitation efforts.

Question 2: A patient with wide-complex tachycardia at 180 bpm is stable. Adenosine is given and does not convert the rhythm. What does this suggest?

The dose was insufficient and should be repeated
The rhythm is SVT with aberrancy
The rhythm is likely ventricular tachycardia (Correct answer)
The patient needs immediate cardioversion

Correct answer: The rhythm is likely ventricular tachycardia

Failure to terminate with adenosine in a stable wide-complex tachycardia suggests the rhythm is ventricular tachycardia rather than SVT with aberrancy.

Question 3: You are part of a resuscitation team. To ensure high-quality CPR is being delivered, which metric is most accurately monitored using quantitative waveform capnography?

Arterial blood pressure.
Effectiveness of chest compressions and potential ROSC. (Correct answer)
Chest compression depth.
Correct hand placement on the sternum.

Correct answer: Effectiveness of chest compressions and potential ROSC.

Quantitative waveform capnography measures end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2). During CPR, ETCO2 values can indicate the quality of chest compressions (a value <10 mmHg suggests compressions may be inadequate). A sudden, sustained increase in ETCO2 is a strong indicator of Return of Spontaneous Circulation (ROSC).

Question 4: Which rhythm is NOT considered a shockable rhythm in ACLS?

Pulseless electrical activity (Correct answer)
Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
Coarse VF
Ventricular fibrillation

Correct answer: Pulseless electrical activity

Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is a non-shockable rhythm; defibrillation is ineffective and CPR with reversible cause treatment is required.

Question 5: In a patient with hemorrhagic stroke due to warfarin, which reversal agent is preferred for rapid INR correction?

Vitamin K alone
Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) alone
Protamine sulfate
4-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (4F-PCC) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 4-factor prothrombin complex concentrate (4F-PCC)

4F-PCC rapidly reverses warfarin anticoagulation with smaller volume than FFP and faster INR correction, making it preferred in hemorrhagic stroke.

Question 6: For which patient population is a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA) preferred over an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)?

Patients with nasal trauma
Patients with suspected basilar skull fracture
Semi-conscious patients with an intact gag reflex (Correct answer)
Deeply unconscious patients with no gag reflex

Correct answer: Semi-conscious patients with an intact gag reflex

An NPA is preferred for semi-conscious patients who have an intact gag reflex because it is better tolerated and less likely to trigger vomiting than an OPA.

Question 7: A provider is managing a patient with tachycardia and suspects the rhythm is AF with aberrant conduction vs. VT. The patient is stable. What is the safest pharmacological approach?

Digoxin, which works well for all wide-complex tachycardias
Procainamide, which is effective for both SVT with aberrancy and VT (Correct answer)
Adenosine, which is safe and diagnostic for both rhythms
Verapamil, since it slows the ventricular rate safely

Correct answer: Procainamide, which is effective for both SVT with aberrancy and VT

Procainamide is effective for both SVT with aberrancy and VT, making it a safe choice when the diagnosis is uncertain in a stable patient.

Question 8: You should check the carotid pulse after starting external pacing to ensure mechanical capture.

TRUE
FALSE (Correct answer)

Correct answer: FALSE

Checking the carotid pulse is often unreliable during transcutaneous pacing because the strong electrical impulses can cause muscle contractions in the neck, which may be mistaken for a true pulse. To confirm mechanical capture, it is more reliable to assess a peripheral pulse (e.g., femoral or radial), blood pressure, or end-tidal CO2 for signs of improved perfusion. These methods provide a more accurate assessment of the heart's pumping effectiveness.

Question 9: Which electrolyte abnormality is most commonly associated with recurrent ventricular fibrillation after ROSC?

Hyperphosphatemia
Hypernatremia
Hypercalcemia
Hypomagnesemia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hypomagnesemia

Hypomagnesemia lowers the threshold for ventricular fibrillation and should be corrected in post-arrest patients.

Question 10: Which of the following is a core component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS) used for rapid stroke assessment?

Pupil reaction
Blood glucose level
Facial droop (Correct answer)
Grip strength

Correct answer: Facial droop

The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS) is a simple, three-part assessment to identify potential stroke patients. The three components are Facial Droop, Arm Drift, and Abnormal Speech. An abnormality in any one of these three areas indicates a high probability of a stroke.

Question 11: Which device provides the MOST reliable protection against aspiration during advanced airway management in ACLS?

Oropharyngeal airway
Endotracheal tube (ETT) (Correct answer)
Bag-mask valve
Nasopharyngeal airway

Correct answer: Endotracheal tube (ETT)

The endotracheal tube, when properly placed and cuffed, provides the most reliable protection against aspiration by isolating the trachea.

Question 12: A 78-year-old patient with known atrial fibrillation on warfarin presents with acute ischemic stroke. INR is 1.7. Is IV tPA indicated?

No, any anticoagulant use is an absolute contraindication
Yes, INR < 2.0 permits tPA administration (Correct answer)
Yes, if onset was less than 3 hours ago
No, INR > 1.7 is a contraindication to tPA

Correct answer: Yes, INR < 2.0 permits tPA administration

IV tPA can be given if INR is ≤ 1.7; an INR > 1.7 in a patient on warfarin is a contraindication.

Question 13: When performing bag-mask ventilation during CPR, what is the recommended tidal volume?

800–1000 mL for maximum oxygenation
200–300 mL to avoid hyperventilation
1200 mL to ensure deep lung inflation
500–600 mL (enough to produce visible chest rise) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 500–600 mL (enough to produce visible chest rise)

Tidal volumes of 500–600 mL, sufficient to produce visible chest rise, are recommended to avoid gastric inflation and barotrauma.

Question 14: It is possible to gauge CPR's efficacy by:

Quantitative waveform capnography
Arterial diastolic blood pressure
All of the above (Correct answer)
Central venous oxygen saturation

Correct answer: All of the above

The efficacy of CPR can be gauged by monitoring several physiological parameters. Quantitative waveform capnography (ETCO2) reflects cardiac output, arterial diastolic blood pressure correlates with coronary perfusion pressure, and central venous oxygen saturation (ScvO2) indicates tissue oxygen delivery. Monitoring all these parameters provides a comprehensive assessment of CPR quality and effectiveness, guiding resuscitation efforts.

Question 15: Which of the following is the MOST sensitive early imaging modality for detecting acute ischemic stroke within the first few hours of onset?

CT angiography
Diffusion-weighted MRI (DWI) (Correct answer)
CT perfusion
Non-contrast CT head

Correct answer: Diffusion-weighted MRI (DWI)

DWI-MRI detects cytotoxic edema within minutes of ischemia onset and is far more sensitive than CT in the hyperacute phase.

Question 16: During CPR, a rescuer is using a bag-mask device alone. Which technique best maintains an adequate mask seal?

Two-hand mask hold with a second rescuer compressing the bag (Correct answer)
E-C clamp technique with one hand
Tilting the head back without jaw thrust
Placing the mask over the mouth only

Correct answer: Two-hand mask hold with a second rescuer compressing the bag

Two rescuers — one holding the mask with both hands using the E-C clamp and one squeezing the bag — provides the best seal and ventilation.

Question 17: What is a key indicator that CPR is resulting in ROSC (return of spontaneous circulation)?

Pulse oximetry reads 100%
ETCO2 abruptly rises to 35–40 mmHg (Correct answer)
Heart rate on monitor increases to 200 bpm
ETCO2 suddenly drops to below 10 mmHg

Correct answer: ETCO2 abruptly rises to 35–40 mmHg

A sudden rise in ETCO2 to near-normal levels (35–40 mmHg) indicates restored cardiac output and strongly suggests ROSC.

Question 18: A 45-year-old collapses. You find no pulse after 10 seconds of checking. What is your FIRST action?

Open the airway and give 2 rescue breaths
Apply the AED and analyze rhythm
Begin chest compressions (Correct answer)
Call for help and wait for EMS

Correct answer: Begin chest compressions

Chest compressions should be started immediately upon confirming pulselessness; CPR begins with compressions (C-A-B sequence).

Question 19: Which of the following rhythms is NOT a shockable rhythm in the ACLS cardiac arrest algorithm?

Asystole (Correct answer)
Ventricular fibrillation
Pulseless ventricular tachycardia
Coarse ventricular fibrillation

Correct answer: Asystole

Asystole (flat line) is a non-shockable rhythm; defibrillation has no benefit when there is no electrical activity to be organized.

Question 20: An advanced airway (endotracheal tube) is in place during CPR. How should ventilations be delivered?

30:2 ratio, pausing compressions for breaths
2 breaths every 30 compressions, resuming compressions immediately
1 breath every 2–3 seconds, asynchronously with compressions
1 breath every 6 seconds, asynchronously with compressions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1 breath every 6 seconds, asynchronously with compressions

Once an advanced airway is secured, ventilations are given asynchronously at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/min) without interrupting compressions.

Question 21: During the bradycardia algorithm, atropine fails to increase the heart rate. What is the next intervention?

Transcutaneous pacing or dopamine/epinephrine infusion (Correct answer)
Synchronized cardioversion
Adenosine 6 mg IV push
Repeat atropine 1 mg IV

Correct answer: Transcutaneous pacing or dopamine/epinephrine infusion

If atropine is ineffective for symptomatic bradycardia, transcutaneous pacing or vasopressor infusion (dopamine or epinephrine) should be initiated.

Question 22: A supraglottic airway device (SGA) is considered an acceptable alternative to endotracheal intubation in ACLS because it:

Is more secure than an ETT and has a lower misplacement risk
Can be inserted without interrupting chest compressions and provides effective ventilation (Correct answer)
Is the preferred airway for all cardiac arrests per 2020 guidelines
Eliminates the need for PETCO2 monitoring

Correct answer: Can be inserted without interrupting chest compressions and provides effective ventilation

SGAs such as the LMA or King LT can be inserted with minimal interruption to CPR and provide acceptable ventilation during cardiac arrest.

Question 23: Which statement regarding the oropharyngeal airway (OPA) is false:

Throughout bag-mask ventilation, the OPA maintains the airway open.
The patient's ability to bite on an ET tube can be stopped by the OPA.
On a patient who is aware, the OPA should only be applied. (Correct answer)
The OPA can make you gag and cough.

Correct answer: On a patient who is aware, the OPA should only be applied.

The statement that an OPA should *only* be applied to an aware patient is false. In fact, an OPA should *not* be used in a conscious or semiconscious patient with an intact gag reflex, as it can induce gagging, vomiting, and aspiration. It is primarily used in unconscious patients to prevent tongue obstruction and facilitate ventilation.

Question 24: Which blood pressure threshold must be achieved and maintained BEFORE administering IV alteplase for acute ischemic stroke?

< 220/120 mmHg
< 185/110 mmHg (Correct answer)
< 160/90 mmHg
< 140/80 mmHg

Correct answer: < 185/110 mmHg

BP must be < 185/110 mmHg before alteplase administration and maintained < 180/105 mmHg for at least 24 hours afterward.

Question 25: A patient in pulseless VT is refractory after two defibrillation attempts. What is the recommended next action regarding energy?

Continue at the same energy level for all subsequent shocks
Decrease the energy by 50 J with each subsequent attempt
Switch to synchronized cardioversion for the next attempt
Use manufacturer-recommended escalating doses or maximum dose for subsequent shocks (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Use manufacturer-recommended escalating doses or maximum dose for subsequent shocks

For refractory VF/pVT, subsequent shocks should use manufacturer-recommended escalating energy or the maximum device dose to improve defibrillation success.

Question 26: A post-arrest patient undergoes CT brain showing diffuse cerebral edema with loss of gray-white differentiation. This finding suggests:

Normal appearance in the setting of hypothermia
Hypertensive encephalopathy responding to treatment
Reversible cerebral vasospasm
Severe anoxic brain injury with poor prognosis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Severe anoxic brain injury with poor prognosis

Diffuse cerebral edema with gray-white matter blurring on CT indicates severe anoxic injury and portends a poor neurological outcome.

Question 27: According to the American Heart Association's time-sensitive goals for acute stroke care, what is the target 'door-to-needle' time for the administration of intravenous alteplase in eligible candidates?

Within 90 minutes of arrival.
Within 45 minutes of arrival.
Within 30 minutes of arrival.
Within 60 minutes of arrival. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Within 60 minutes of arrival.

The established 'door-to-needle' goal for administering intravenous alteplase to eligible patients with acute ischemic stroke is within 60 minutes of their arrival at the hospital. This benchmark emphasizes the need for rapid evaluation, imaging, and decision-making to maximize the potential for a good outcome.

Question 28: A patient with symptomatic bradycardia has a known transplanted heart. Why might atropine be ineffective?

Transplanted hearts have faster baseline rates
Atropine is contraindicated in transplanted hearts due to toxicity
Transplanted hearts respond only to calcium channel blockers
The donor heart is denervated and lacks vagal innervation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The donor heart is denervated and lacks vagal innervation

The transplanted heart is denervated and does not respond to atropine because there is no vagal innervation to block.

Question 29: A patient with STEMI receives primary PCI. Which medication should be continued for at least 12 months post-stenting to reduce stent thrombosis risk?

Low molecular weight heparin
Warfarin
A P2Y12 inhibitor (ticagrelor, prasugrel, or clopidogrel) (Correct answer)
Dipyridamole

Correct answer: A P2Y12 inhibitor (ticagrelor, prasugrel, or clopidogrel)

Dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin + P2Y12 inhibitor) for at least 12 months post-PCI is recommended to prevent stent thrombosis.

Question 30: What should a rescuer do if a flat capnography waveform is observed after intubation?

Assume esophageal intubation and remove the tube immediately (Correct answer)
Recheck pulse and continue monitoring
Administer epinephrine and continue CPR
Increase ventilation rate

Correct answer: Assume esophageal intubation and remove the tube immediately

A persistently flat capnography waveform after intubation strongly suggests esophageal placement; the tube must be immediately removed and the patient re-oxygenated.

Question 31: The compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR when there is no advanced airway in place is:

5:1
20:2
10:1
30:2 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30:2

For adult CPR without an advanced airway, the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio is 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths. This ratio applies to both single rescuer and two-rescuer CPR. This standard ensures adequate blood flow to vital organs while minimizing interruptions for ventilations.

Question 32: Which factor is NOT a contraindication to emergent coronary angiography in a post-cardiac arrest patient?

Known non-cardiac cause of arrest (e.g., drug overdose)
Confirmed terminal illness with prior DNR
Coma without return of purposeful movement (Correct answer)
Patient's refusal prior to arrest

Correct answer: Coma without return of purposeful movement

Coma alone is not a contraindication to cardiac catheterization; post-arrest patients are routinely taken to the cath lab while comatose when a cardiac cause is suspected.

Question 33: Which of the following is the preferred reperfusion strategy for STEMI if PCI can be performed within 90 minutes of first medical contact?

Intravenous nitroglycerin infusion
Coronary artery bypass grafting
Fibrinolytic therapy
Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Primary percutaneous coronary intervention

Primary PCI is the preferred reperfusion strategy for STEMI when it can be performed within 90 minutes of first medical contact at a PCI-capable center.

Question 34: A 70 kg adult is in cardiac arrest. Bag-mask ventilation is being performed. What tidal volume is recommended per breath?

250–300 mL
500–600 mL (Correct answer)
1200–1500 mL
800–1000 mL

Correct answer: 500–600 mL

A tidal volume of 500–600 mL (enough to see chest rise) is recommended to avoid gastric insufflation and lung injury.

Question 35: Which of the following is a key component of high-quality CPR that directly impacts coronary perfusion pressure?

Using a compression depth of at least 3 inches.
Achieving a chest compression fraction of at least 80%. (Correct answer)
Providing ventilations every 10 seconds.
Checking for a pulse for at least 15 seconds.

Correct answer: Achieving a chest compression fraction of at least 80%.

Chest compression fraction is the proportion of time that chest compressions are being performed during a cardiac arrest. Minimizing interruptions and maximizing this fraction (to at least 80%) is crucial for maintaining adequate coronary perfusion pressure and increasing the chances of ROSC.

Question 36: What oxygen saturation target should be maintained in acute ischemic stroke patients without hypoxia?

SpO₂ 100%; always provide high-flow O₂
SpO₂ > 94%; do not give supplemental O₂ if already ≥ 94% (Correct answer)
SpO₂ > 88%; permissive hypoxia is acceptable
SpO₂ > 80%; avoid O₂ to prevent vasoconstriction

Correct answer: SpO₂ > 94%; do not give supplemental O₂ if already ≥ 94%

Supplemental oxygen is indicated only if SpO₂ < 94%; routine hyperoxia provides no benefit and may be harmful.

Question 37: A victim of drowning is unresponsive and apneic. Which modification to standard CPR sequence is recommended for this patient?

Begin with 2–5 rescue breaths before starting compressions (Correct answer)
Begin with chest compressions then assess for pulse first
Use a 15:2 ratio regardless of the victim's age
Skip ventilations and perform compressions only

Correct answer: Begin with 2–5 rescue breaths before starting compressions

Drowning victims have an asphyxial arrest, so providing rescue breaths first addresses the underlying hypoxia before compressions.

Question 38: A patient presents with sudden onset aphasia and right-sided weakness. CT head shows no hemorrhage. Last known well was 90 minutes ago. What is the next priority intervention?

Obtain MRI brain before treatment
Administer IV tPA immediately
Start aspirin 325 mg
Perform CT angiography to evaluate large vessel occlusion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Perform CT angiography to evaluate large vessel occlusion

CT angiography should be obtained to assess for large vessel occlusion (LVO), which determines eligibility for mechanical thrombectomy in addition to IV tPA.

Question 39: After IV tPA, when should antiplatelet therapy (aspirin) be initiated in acute ischemic stroke?

Immediately after tPA bolus
Within 1 hour of tPA completion
48 hours after tPA regardless of imaging
24 hours after tPA, once imaging excludes hemorrhage (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 24 hours after tPA, once imaging excludes hemorrhage

Antiplatelet agents should be withheld for 24 hours after tPA administration; a repeat CT should confirm no hemorrhage before starting.

Question 40: A 58-year-old patient has a heart rate of 190 bpm with a wide QRS complex and is pulseless. What is the correct action?

Defibrillation and CPR per VF/pVT algorithm (Correct answer)
Adenosine 6 mg IV push
Amiodarone 300 mg IV bolus
Synchronized cardioversion at 120 J

Correct answer: Defibrillation and CPR per VF/pVT algorithm

A pulseless wide-complex tachycardia is treated as ventricular fibrillation/pulseless VT — defibrillation and CPR per cardiac arrest algorithm.

Question 41: What is the preferred initial airway adjunct for an unconscious adult patient who lacks a gag reflex during ACLS?

Oropharyngeal airway (OPA) (Correct answer)
Laryngeal mask airway
Endotracheal tube
Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)

Correct answer: Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)

An oropharyngeal airway (OPA) is the preferred initial airway adjunct for unconscious patients without a gag reflex to maintain airway patency.

Question 42: During CPR on an adult, chest recoil between compressions is important primarily because it:

Allows the heart to refill with blood (Correct answer)
Prevents rib fractures
Increases tidal volume during ventilation
Reduces rescuer fatigue

Correct answer: Allows the heart to refill with blood

Full chest recoil allows venous blood to return to the heart (venous return), creating preload for the next compression.

Question 43: Which statement about permissive hypertension in acute ischemic stroke is CORRECT?

IV labetalol must be given for any BP > 160/90 mmHg
BP should be aggressively lowered to < 140/90 mmHg immediately
BP up to 220/120 mmHg may be tolerated in non-tPA candidates to maintain penumbral perfusion (Correct answer)
Calcium channel blockers are first-line for any BP elevation

Correct answer: BP up to 220/120 mmHg may be tolerated in non-tPA candidates to maintain penumbral perfusion

In non-tPA-eligible patients, BP up to 220/120 mmHg is generally tolerated to preserve collateral flow to the ischemic penumbra.

Question 44: To minimize interruptions in chest compressions during an ACLS response, when is the ideal time to pre-charge the defibrillator?

While the compressor is completing their final cycle before a planned rhythm analysis. (Correct answer)
Immediately after the rhythm check reveals a non-shockable rhythm.
As soon as the patient is first determined to be in cardiac arrest.
After the shock has been delivered to the patient.

Correct answer: While the compressor is completing their final cycle before a planned rhythm analysis.

To ensure the shortest possible pause between stopping compressions and delivering a shock, the defibrillator should be charged before the upcoming pulse and rhythm check. This allows for immediate defibrillation if a shockable rhythm is identified, thus reducing the 'hands-off' time and improving CPR quality.

Question 45: When should 50% dextrose be avoided absent a diagnosis of hypoglycemia?

Neither A nor B
Stroke
Head Trauma
Both A and B (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Both A and B

Administering hypertonic dextrose (D50) to patients with suspected stroke or head trauma, in the absence of confirmed hypoglycemia, can be detrimental. The dextrose can exacerbate cerebral edema and increase intracranial pressure, potentially worsening neurological injury. Therefore, D50 should only be given in these specific situations if hypoglycemia is definitively diagnosed.

Question 46: Which waveform capnography value indicates adequate CPR quality and likely myocardial perfusion during resuscitation?

PETCO2 ≥ 20 mmHg (Correct answer)
PETCO2 ≥ 10 mmHg
PETCO2 < 5 mmHg
PETCO2 ≥ 40 mmHg

Correct answer: PETCO2 ≥ 20 mmHg

A PETCO2 of 20 mmHg or greater during CPR suggests adequate cardiac output and is associated with improved survival.

Question 47: What is the recommended initial dose of dopamine infusion for hemodynamically significant bradycardia when atropine fails?

2–10 mcg/kg/min (Correct answer)
1–2 mcg/kg/min
15–20 mcg/kg/min
0.1–0.5 mcg/kg/min

Correct answer: 2–10 mcg/kg/min

Dopamine is initiated at 2–10 mcg/kg/min as a chronotropic agent for symptomatic bradycardia refractory to atropine.

Question 48: Which of the following rhythms is most likely to be converted by vagal maneuvers?

Ventricular tachycardia
AV nodal reentrant tachycardia (AVNRT) (Correct answer)
Atrial flutter
Atrial fibrillation

Correct answer: AV nodal reentrant tachycardia (AVNRT)

AVNRT depends on the AV node as part of its reentrant circuit and can be terminated by vagal maneuvers that slow AV conduction.

Question 49: Which medication should be avoided for seizure prophylaxis in post-cardiac arrest patients according to current evidence?

Levetiracetam for treatment of confirmed seizures
Routine prophylactic anticonvulsants in all post-arrest patients (Correct answer)
Valproate for refractory status epilepticus
Midazolam for acute seizure termination

Correct answer: Routine prophylactic anticonvulsants in all post-arrest patients

Routine prophylactic anticonvulsant use in all post-arrest patients is not recommended; treatment should be reserved for confirmed seizure activity.

Question 50: Which sign indicates that a supraglottic airway (e.g., LMA) is appropriately placed?

SpO₂ above 95%
End-tidal CO₂ waveform identical to ETT
No air entry heard over the epigastrium
Bilateral chest rise and breath sounds with minimal leak (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Bilateral chest rise and breath sounds with minimal leak

Bilateral chest rise and equal breath sounds with minimal air leak confirm appropriate supraglottic airway placement.

Question 51: During an ACLS scenario, the team leader calls for a 'pulse check.' How long should this check last?

No more than 10 seconds (Correct answer)
15–20 seconds
Up to 30 seconds
Exactly 5 seconds

Correct answer: No more than 10 seconds

Pulse checks should be no longer than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions to chest compressions.

AHA Advanced Cardiovascular Life Support (ACLS) Exam

The AHA ACLS exam assesses a healthcare professional's ability to recognize and intervene in cardiopulmonary arrest, stroke, and other cardiovascular emergencies.

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60 min

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84%

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