ACE Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ACE facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which organization publishes the Apexus ACE exam and sets the standards for 340B compliance certification? → Apexus, the HRSA-designated 340B Prime Vendor
2. What is a corrective action plan in ACE compliance? → A strategy to address deficiencies and prevent recurrence
3. What is the consequence for a manufacturer that knowingly and intentionally overcharges a covered entity above the 340B ceiling price? → The manufacturer may be subject to civil monetary penalties and must refund the overcharge
4. A client experiences sudden dizziness and nausea 10 minutes into a workout. The FIRST action the personal trainer should take is: → Have the client sit or lie down immediately and discontinue exercise
5. Which type of risk management document outlines emergency action procedures a facility must have in place? → Emergency action plan (EAP)
6. When a personal training client is a minor (under 18), the informed consent and waiver documents must be signed by: → A parent or legal guardian
7. What are the five process groups in ACE project management? → Initiating, Planning, Executing, Monitoring & Controlling, Closing
8. What is the function of a replenishment model in 340B inventory management? → Track usage and trigger orders based on actual dispensing
9. Which of the following should be included in a contract between a covered entity and its TPA? → Data ownership, audit rights, breach notification procedures, and performance standards
10. Which of the following changes requires a covered entity to update its OPAIS registration BEFORE the change takes effect to remain compliant? → Adding a new child site or contract pharmacy
11. Which of the following most commonly triggers an HRSA audit of a covered entity? → A complaint from a manufacturer, TPA, or other stakeholder alleging program violations
12. Under the 340B program, an individual does NOT qualify as a patient of the covered entity if the only health care service they receive is: → Dispensing of a drug for subsequent self-administration at home
13. Under which statutory authority was the 340B Drug Pricing Program created, making familiarity with the statute a core competency for ACE candidates? → Section 340B of the Public Health Service Act
14. During a graded exercise test, at what point should the trainer STOP the test based on blood pressure response? → Systolic BP exceeds 250 mmHg or diastolic exceeds 115 mmHg
15. Which of the following is NOT required under HRSA's 340B patient definition? → The patient must be uninsured or underinsured to qualify
16. In the context of 340B inventory management, what does 'accumulation' refer to? → Tracking eligible patient encounters before purchasing drugs at 340B prices
17. Who is eligible to become an Apexus Certified Expert (ACE)? → Individuals engaged in 340B program responsibilities
18. An ACE-certified trainer uses the ACE IFT Model. In Phase 1 (Stability and Mobility Training), the primary focus of program execution is: → Building neuromuscular efficiency and joint stability
19. Why is documentation important in ACE technology? → It ensures knowledge transfer, troubleshooting, and operational continuity
20. What is the primary purpose of registering a contract pharmacy on the HRSA 340B database? → To make the arrangement official and ensure manufacturers recognize it for 340B pricing
21. Which entity negotiates sub-ceiling prices for 340B participants? → Apexus
22. What is a dashboard in ACE reporting? → A visual display of key metrics for at-a-glance performance monitoring
23. Which of the following conditions would place a client in the HIGH-risk ACE stratification category? → Known coronary artery disease
24. Which statistical measure BEST represents a typical client's performance when there are extreme outlier scores in the dataset? → Median
25. Why is physical inventory reconciliation important in 340B programs? → To confirm 340B compliance by aligning data and inventory
26. What is the primary tool for covered entities to purchase 340B drugs at discounted prices? → Prime Vendor Program (PVP)
27. What should a ACE professional do upon discovering a colleague's unethical conduct? → Report through appropriate channels with proper documentation
28. A trainer is planning a 6-month program for a client with a goal of running a 5K. Which periodization model is MOST appropriate? → Linear periodization progressing from aerobic base to race-pace work
29. What is the primary purpose of a code of ethics in ACE practice? → To establish professional conduct standards and guide ethical decision-making
30. The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) most directly affects personal trainers when they: → Receive or share a client's medical records or health information from providers