HPE Aruba Networking Certified Associate - Campus Access (ACA) HPE6-A85 — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for end-to-end communication?

Application
Data Link
Transport (Correct answer)
Network

Correct answer: Transport

The Transport Layer (Layer 4) of the OSI model is responsible for end-to-end communication between applications on different hosts. It ensures reliable data transfer through services like segmentation, reassembly, error checking, and flow control. Protocols like TCP and UDP operate at this layer to manage the delivery of data from a source application to a destination application, guaranteeing data integrity and order.

Question 2: In Aruba Central, what does the Audit Trail feature track?

Firmware version history for all managed devices
All configuration changes made by administrators with timestamps and user identities (Correct answer)
Client roaming events between access points
DHCP lease assignments for tracked devices

Correct answer: All configuration changes made by administrators with timestamps and user identities

The Audit Trail in Aruba Central logs all configuration changes including who made the change, what was changed, and when it occurred.

Question 3: What is SD-WAN (Software-Defined Wide Area Network)?

A physical appliance that replaces traditional routers
A type of VPN that only supports MPLS connections
A software-based approach to managing WAN connections that abstracts the underlay transport from the overlay network (Correct answer)
A protocol for encrypting wireless WAN traffic

Correct answer: A software-based approach to managing WAN connections that abstracts the underlay transport from the overlay network

SD-WAN is a software-defined approach to WAN management that abstracts the underlying transport (MPLS, broadband, LTE) and provides centralized policy-based traffic management across multiple WAN links.

Question 4: What is the administrative distance of a directly connected route on an Aruba AOS-CX router?

110
0 (Correct answer)
120
1

Correct answer: 0

Directly connected routes have an administrative distance of 0, representing the most trusted route source since the network is physically attached to the device.

Question 5: Which OSPF area must all other OSPF areas connect to?

Area 100
Area 1
Area 255
Area 0 (backbone area) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Area 0 (backbone area)

All OSPF areas must connect to Area 0, the backbone area, either directly or through a virtual link to ensure proper LSA flooding.

Question 6: Which ARP security feature on Aruba switches prevents ARP spoofing attacks by validating ARP packets against the DHCP Snooping binding table?

Gratuitous ARP Blocker
ARP Guard
Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) (Correct answer)
ARP Proxy

Correct answer: Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI)

Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) validates ARP packets against the DHCP Snooping binding table, dropping ARP packets with invalid MAC-to-IP mappings to prevent ARP spoofing.

Question 7: What is the loopback address in IPv4, and what is it used for?

192.168.0.1 – used for private LAN addressing
10.0.0.1 – used as the default gateway
127.0.0.1 – used to test the local TCP/IP stack without sending traffic on the network (Correct answer)
169.254.0.1 – used for APIPA auto-configuration

Correct answer: 127.0.0.1 – used to test the local TCP/IP stack without sending traffic on the network

The IPv4 loopback address 127.0.0.1 (range 127.0.0.0/8) routes traffic back to the local host, allowing software to test network stack functionality.

Question 8: When an Aruba AP shows as Down in AirWave but is physically powered on, what should you check first?

SSID configuration on the AP
AP antenna alignment and signal strength
Network connectivity between the AP and the management server (IP, VLAN, firewall rules) (Correct answer)
Wireless client association settings

Correct answer: Network connectivity between the AP and the management server (IP, VLAN, firewall rules)

If an AP is powered but showing down in management, verify IP connectivity and check that no firewall or VLAN misconfiguration blocks management traffic.

Question 9: Which cable type uses light pulses to transmit data and is immune to electromagnetic interference?

STP (Shielded Twisted Pair)
Coaxial
Cat 6 UTP
Fiber optic (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Fiber optic

Fiber optic cables transmit data as light through glass or plastic strands, making them immune to EMI and capable of much longer distances than copper.

Question 10: What metric does RIP use to determine the best path?

Cost
Bandwidth
Delay
Hop count (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hop count

RIP uses hop count as its sole metric, with a maximum of 15 hops, and routes with 16 hops are considered unreachable.

Question 11: What does BGP stand for and where is it primarily used?

Bridged Gateway Protocol; used for Layer 2 extensions
Border Gateway Protocol; used between autonomous systems on the internet (Correct answer)
Basic Gateway Protocol; used within a single enterprise campus
Backup Gateway Protocol; used for redundant default routes

Correct answer: Border Gateway Protocol; used between autonomous systems on the internet

BGP is the path-vector routing protocol used between autonomous systems and is the routing protocol of the internet.

Question 12: Which method improves wireless network security?

WPA
WEP
WPA3 (Correct answer)
MAC filtering only

Correct answer: WPA3

WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 3) is the latest and most secure encryption standard for wireless networks, offering significant improvements over its predecessors like WPA and WPA2. It provides stronger encryption, enhanced protection against brute-force attacks, and individualized data encryption in public Wi-Fi networks. This makes it the best choice for improving wireless network security.

Question 13: Which 802.11 standard first introduced support for operation in the 6 GHz frequency band?

802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6E) (Correct answer)
802.11ac
802.11ad
802.11be (Wi-Fi 7)

Correct answer: 802.11ax (Wi-Fi 6E)

802.11ax Wi-Fi 6E extended the standard to the 6 GHz band, providing additional spectrum and less congestion.

Question 14: What is the purpose of ECMP (Equal-Cost Multi-Path) routing?

To prevent routing loops in distance-vector protocols
To elect a primary and backup path for failover
To summarize multiple subnets into a single route advertisement
To load-balance traffic across multiple paths with equal routing metrics (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To load-balance traffic across multiple paths with equal routing metrics

ECMP allows a router to load-balance traffic across multiple equal-cost paths simultaneously, increasing throughput and redundancy.

Question 15: In the context of Aruba routing, what is a VLAN interface (SVI) used for?

To manage DHCP scope assignments
To enable spanning tree on a VLAN
To configure trunk ports between switches
To route traffic between VLANs at Layer 3 on a multilayer switch (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To route traffic between VLANs at Layer 3 on a multilayer switch

A VLAN interface (Switch Virtual Interface) provides a Layer 3 IP address for a VLAN, enabling inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch.

Question 16: What is the first step in a systematic network troubleshooting methodology?

Define the problem and gather information (Correct answer)
Restart all network devices
Replace suspected hardware components
Update all device firmware

Correct answer: Define the problem and gather information

The first step in systematic troubleshooting is clearly defining the problem by gathering information from users and monitoring systems before taking any action.

Question 17: Which protocol is used to assign IP addresses automatically?

DNS
NAT
FTP
DHCP (Correct answer)

Correct answer: DHCP

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a network protocol specifically designed to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices. This automation simplifies network administration by eliminating the need for manual IP configuration for each device. Other protocols like DNS, FTP, and NAT serve different network functions.

Question 18: In Aruba SD-WAN, what is a 'Business Intent Overlay' (BIO)?

A physical VLAN segment dedicated to business-critical traffic
A reporting module that tracks WAN link costs and SLA compliance
A policy-driven overlay that maps application traffic to specific WAN transport paths based on business requirements (Correct answer)
An encrypted storage area for SD-WAN configuration backups

Correct answer: A policy-driven overlay that maps application traffic to specific WAN transport paths based on business requirements

A Business Intent Overlay in Aruba SD-WAN is a policy construct that groups applications by business priority and maps them to WAN paths that meet their performance and cost requirements.

Question 19: In OSPF, what is the role of the Designated Router (DR) on a broadcast network?

To assign IP addresses to OSPF neighbors
To reduce LSA flooding by acting as the central point of adjacency for all routers on the segment (Correct answer)
To originate external routes into the OSPF domain
To be the default gateway for all end devices

Correct answer: To reduce LSA flooding by acting as the central point of adjacency for all routers on the segment

The DR reduces OSPF flooding overhead by forming adjacencies with all routers on the segment and distributing LSAs on their behalf.

Question 20: On Aruba AOS-CX switches, where are QoS policies most commonly applied to enforce traffic prioritization?

Within the spanning tree configuration
On the switch management VLAN interface only
On ingress and egress interfaces using QoS profiles (Correct answer)
Only on uplink ports connecting to routers

Correct answer: On ingress and egress interfaces using QoS profiles

On Aruba AOS-CX, QoS schedules and policies are applied to physical or LAG interfaces at ingress (classification/remarking) and egress (scheduling/queuing).

Question 21: Which Aruba Mobility Controller configuration option prevents a wireless client from communicating directly with other clients on the same SSID?

Client isolation (intra-BSS traffic blocking) (Correct answer)
Band steering
ARM channel selection
Load balancing

Correct answer: Client isolation (intra-BSS traffic blocking)

Client isolation (intra-BSS blocking) prevents Layer 2 traffic between clients on the same SSID, commonly used for guest networks to protect clients from each other.

Question 22: What does 'application-aware routing' mean in the context of Aruba SD-WAN?

The SD-WAN device inspects URLs to filter web content
Traffic is steered over WAN links based on the specific application's requirements such as latency, jitter, or packet loss thresholds (Correct answer)
SD-WAN automatically updates application software on branch servers
All applications are encrypted before leaving the branch

Correct answer: Traffic is steered over WAN links based on the specific application's requirements such as latency, jitter, or packet loss thresholds

Application-aware routing in Aruba SD-WAN identifies applications and routes their traffic over the WAN path that best meets their specific performance requirements, such as low-latency paths for VoIP.

Question 23: Which Aruba platform provides centralized network management for campus and branch deployments?

Aruba Central (Correct answer)
Aruba ClearPass
Aruba AirWave
Aruba NetEdit

Correct answer: Aruba Central

Aruba Central is the cloud-based network management platform for centralized visibility and control across campus and branch networks.

Question 24: What is the purpose of IP Source Guard on an Aruba switch?

To limit the number of IP addresses a port can learn
To validate that source IP addresses on untrusted ports match the DHCP Snooping binding table, preventing IP spoofing (Correct answer)
To encrypt all IP traffic passing through the switch
To block all non-routable RFC 1918 addresses from entering the network

Correct answer: To validate that source IP addresses on untrusted ports match the DHCP Snooping binding table, preventing IP spoofing

IP Source Guard filters traffic on untrusted ports by verifying source IP addresses against the DHCP Snooping binding table, preventing hosts from spoofing IP addresses of other clients.

Question 25: What is the primary purpose of syslog in network management?

To encrypt management traffic
To configure device interfaces remotely
To assign IP addresses automatically
To collect and store log messages from network devices (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To collect and store log messages from network devices

Syslog is a standard protocol used to collect and store log messages generated by network devices for auditing and troubleshooting.

Question 26: What is 'jitter' in the context of network QoS for real-time applications?

The variation in packet arrival delay over time (Correct answer)
The percentage of packets lost during transmission
The total one-way delay from source to destination
The maximum throughput of a network path

Correct answer: The variation in packet arrival delay over time

Jitter is the variation (inconsistency) in packet delay over time; excessive jitter degrades real-time applications like VoIP and video conferencing because packets arrive unevenly.

Question 27: What is the purpose of RADIUS accounting in an Aruba network security deployment?

To replace the need for 802.1X
To provide session records (start/stop/interim) for audit, billing, and analytics (Correct answer)
To assign IP addresses via DHCP
To encrypt user credentials during authentication

Correct answer: To provide session records (start/stop/interim) for audit, billing, and analytics

RADIUS accounting sends Start, Interim-Update, and Stop messages to the RADIUS server, recording session duration, bytes transferred, and user identity for audit purposes.

Question 28: What is a key feature of SD-WAN that allows organizations to reduce costs compared to traditional MPLS-only WAN?

SD-WAN can use lower-cost broadband Internet links alongside or instead of expensive MPLS circuits (Correct answer)
SD-WAN uses satellite links to bypass ISP charges
SD-WAN compresses all WAN traffic to reduce bandwidth requirements
SD-WAN eliminates the need for branch routers entirely

Correct answer: SD-WAN can use lower-cost broadband Internet links alongside or instead of expensive MPLS circuits

SD-WAN allows organizations to augment or replace expensive MPLS circuits with lower-cost broadband Internet connections while maintaining application performance through intelligent traffic steering.

Question 29: Which Aruba Central feature provides AI-powered insights to identify and resolve network issues?

RF Planning
AI Insights (Correct answer)
Client Match
Network Health

Correct answer: AI Insights

AI Insights in Aruba Central leverages machine learning to analyze network data and proactively identify potential issues.

Question 30: When Aruba's Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) is used, what determines which firewall policy is applied to a wireless client?

The SSID name alone
The user role assigned after authentication (Correct answer)
The AP group the client connects to
The VLAN tag from the upstream switch

Correct answer: The user role assigned after authentication

The user role — assigned by ClearPass or the controller based on authentication outcome — determines which firewall policy governs the client's traffic.

Question 31: Which dynamic routing protocol is commonly used within an enterprise campus network and is classified as a link-state protocol?

OSPF (Correct answer)
RIP
BGP
EIGRP

Correct answer: OSPF

OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) is a link-state routing protocol widely used within enterprise networks, building a complete topology map and computing shortest paths using Dijkstra's algorithm.

Question 32: Which command on Aruba AOS-CX displays the IPv4 routing table?

show arp
show ip route (Correct answer)
show vlan
show interface brief

Correct answer: show ip route

The 'show ip route' command on Aruba AOS-CX displays the IPv4 routing table, showing all learned and configured routes with their sources and next-hop information.

Question 33: In Aruba Central, which report type shows historical usage trends for capacity planning?

Security Audit Report
Client Health Report
Capacity Planning Report (Correct answer)
Firmware Compliance Report

Correct answer: Capacity Planning Report

Capacity Planning Reports in Aruba Central provide historical usage trends to help administrators plan for future bandwidth and device needs.

Question 34: Which Aruba diagnostic tool performs active tests simulating real user traffic to measure network performance?

Aruba Central Network Tests (Correct answer)
ClearPass Policy Simulator
Aruba AirWave Reports
Aruba NetEdit Diff Tool

Correct answer: Aruba Central Network Tests

Aruba Central Network Tests perform synthetic active measurements simulating real user traffic to identify performance degradation proactively.

Question 35: What does GRE stand for in the context of Aruba tunnel configurations?

Grouped Radio Encryption
Generic Routing Encapsulation (Correct answer)
Global Remote Endpoint
Gateway Routing Extension

Correct answer: Generic Routing Encapsulation

GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation) is a tunneling protocol that encapsulates packets inside IP packets to create virtual point-to-point links.

Question 36: What does LLDP (Link Layer Discovery Protocol) help you determine during troubleshooting?

Wireless channel interference patterns
Routing protocol neighbor relationships
Which devices are directly connected to each network port (Correct answer)
IP address conflicts on the subnet

Correct answer: Which devices are directly connected to each network port

LLDP allows network devices to advertise their identity and capabilities to directly connected neighbors, helping map physical network topology.

Question 37: What is NAT (Network Address Translation) primarily used for in enterprise networks?

To compress packets before sending them over the WAN
To assign VLAN tags to outbound traffic
To encrypt traffic between internal and external networks
To translate private IP addresses to public IP addresses for Internet access (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To translate private IP addresses to public IP addresses for Internet access

NAT translates private RFC 1918 IP addresses used internally to a public IP address for Internet communication, conserving public IPv4 address space.

Question 38: What is the purpose of a network baseline in performance monitoring?

To establish normal operating metrics for comparison against anomalies (Correct answer)
To set maximum bandwidth limits
To configure default gateway settings
To define the network topology diagram

Correct answer: To establish normal operating metrics for comparison against anomalies

A network baseline documents normal operating metrics so that deviations can be identified as potential issues or anomalies.

Question 39: Which DSCP Assured Forwarding (AF) class is recommended for interactive video conferencing traffic?

AF11 (DSCP 10)
AF41 (DSCP 34) (Correct answer)
AF21 (DSCP 18)
CS1 (DSCP 8)

Correct answer: AF41 (DSCP 34)

AF41 (DSCP 34) is the recommended marking for interactive video traffic per RFC 4594, providing high-priority assured forwarding with low drop probability.

Question 40: What is the role of Aruba Activate in the product ecosystem?

It generates network topology maps
It automates zero-touch provisioning for Aruba devices (Correct answer)
It provides wireless intrusion detection
It manages user authentication policies

Correct answer: It automates zero-touch provisioning for Aruba devices

Aruba Activate is a cloud-based provisioning service that enables zero-touch provisioning, automatically configuring Aruba devices when they connect to the network for the first time.

Question 41: What is the role of an SNMP trap in network monitoring?

A scheduled poll request from the NMS to a device
An encrypted tunnel for management traffic
A backup configuration storage mechanism
An unsolicited alert sent from a device to the management station when an event occurs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An unsolicited alert sent from a device to the management station when an event occurs

SNMP traps are unsolicited notifications sent from a network device to the management station when a significant event occurs.

Question 42: Which IPv6 address type is only routable within the local network segment and always begins with fe80?

Multicast
Link-Local (fe80::/10) (Correct answer)
Loopback (::1)
Global Unicast

Correct answer: Link-Local (fe80::/10)

IPv6 Link-Local addresses (fe80::/10 prefix) are automatically assigned to interfaces and are only routable within the local link, not forwarded by routers.

Question 43: In Aruba AOS-CX switches, what is the default number of QoS queues available per port?

16
8 (Correct answer)
2
4

Correct answer: 8

Aruba AOS-CX switches support 8 egress queues per port, allowing granular traffic prioritization aligned to 802.1p CoS or DSCP values.

Question 44: In Aruba's architecture, which component is responsible for centralized WLAN control when using controller-based deployment?

Aruba AirWave
Aruba Central
Aruba Mobility Controller (Correct answer)
Aruba ClearPass

Correct answer: Aruba Mobility Controller

Aruba Mobility Controller acts as the centralized WLAN controller, managing APs and enforcing policies in a controller-based deployment.

Question 45: What is the primary benefit of SD-WAN over traditional WAN architectures for enterprise branch offices?

SD-WAN eliminates the need for any WAN connectivity
SD-WAN enables intelligent, application-aware traffic routing across multiple WAN links with centralized management (Correct answer)
SD-WAN replaces the need for security appliances at branch offices
SD-WAN provides faster CPU processing for routing decisions

Correct answer: SD-WAN enables intelligent, application-aware traffic routing across multiple WAN links with centralized management

SD-WAN improves on traditional WAN by enabling application-aware traffic steering, load balancing across multiple transport links, and centralized policy management from a cloud controller.

Question 46: Which Aruba Central dashboard widget shows the real-time health of the entire network?

Network Summary (Correct answer)
Topology Map
Client Overview
Device Inventory

Correct answer: Network Summary

The Network Summary widget in Aruba Central provides a real-time view of overall network health including device and client status.

Question 47: What is the Aruba GreenLake platform?

A wireless spectrum analysis tool for RF planning
A cloud-delivered, consumption-based IT platform for managing Aruba networking infrastructure as a service (Correct answer)
A physical data center appliance for on-premises cloud computing
An open-source network operating system for Aruba devices

Correct answer: A cloud-delivered, consumption-based IT platform for managing Aruba networking infrastructure as a service

Aruba GreenLake is a cloud-delivered, consumption-based service model that delivers networking infrastructure and management as a service with flexible, pay-as-you-grow pricing.

Question 48: What networking functions does an Aruba gateway provide at the branch edge?

Only physical switch port aggregation
Routing, firewall, VPN termination, and WAN optimization in a single device (Correct answer)
Only DHCP and DNS services
Only wireless LAN controller functions

Correct answer: Routing, firewall, VPN termination, and WAN optimization in a single device

An Aruba gateway consolidates routing, stateful firewall, VPN termination, and WAN optimization into a single branch edge device.

Question 49: Which queuing mechanism guarantees a minimum bandwidth to each class while still allowing unused bandwidth to be shared?

Strict Priority Queuing
Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ) (Correct answer)
FIFO
Tail-drop queuing

Correct answer: Class-Based Weighted Fair Queuing (CBWFQ)

CBWFQ assigns guaranteed minimum bandwidth to each defined class and distributes any remaining bandwidth proportionally among classes.

Question 50: Which protocol is used to securely manage network devices via an encrypted command-line session on port 22?

Telnet
SSH (Correct answer)
HTTP
SNMP

Correct answer: SSH

SSH (Secure Shell) provides encrypted remote access on TCP port 22, replacing the insecure Telnet protocol for device management.

Question 51: What cloud infrastructure provider powers Aruba Central's backend?

IBM Cloud
Amazon Web Services (AWS) (Correct answer)
Google Cloud Platform
Microsoft Azure

Correct answer: Amazon Web Services (AWS)

Aruba Central runs on Amazon Web Services, leveraging its global infrastructure for reliability and geographic scalability.

Question 52: Which Aruba product is designed for network access control and policy enforcement?

Central
AirWave
Access Switch
ClearPass (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ClearPass

Aruba ClearPass is a comprehensive Network Access Control (NAC) solution that provides secure access for wired, wireless, and VPN users. It enforces policies based on user roles, device types, and security posture, ensuring only authorized and compliant devices can connect to the network. ClearPass is central to Aruba's security framework for policy enforcement.

Question 53: What is a DHCP relay agent used for?

To assign static IP addresses from a preconfigured list
To cache DHCP leases locally on each switch
To forward DHCP broadcasts across routed network boundaries to a centralized DHCP server (Correct answer)
To encrypt DHCP traffic between clients and servers

Correct answer: To forward DHCP broadcasts across routed network boundaries to a centralized DHCP server

A DHCP relay agent (IP helper) forwards DHCP broadcast messages across Layer 3 boundaries, allowing a centralized DHCP server to serve clients on multiple subnets.

Question 54: What DSCP value is assigned to Best Effort (BE) traffic, which receives no special QoS treatment?

DSCP 16
DSCP 8
DSCP 32
DSCP 0 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: DSCP 0

DSCP 0 (Default Forwarding / DF) represents Best Effort traffic and receives no guaranteed service — it is the baseline with no QoS marking.

Question 55: What does 'WAN link bonding' in Aruba SD-WAN allow organizations to achieve?

Encrypting WAN traffic using multiple encryption keys simultaneously
Aggregating multiple WAN links to provide higher bandwidth and automatic failover for branch traffic (Correct answer)
Combining multiple LAN ports into a single high-speed interface
Bonding VLANs together to simplify inter-VLAN routing

Correct answer: Aggregating multiple WAN links to provide higher bandwidth and automatic failover for branch traffic

WAN link bonding in Aruba SD-WAN combines multiple WAN connections (e.g., MPLS + broadband + LTE) to aggregate bandwidth and provide seamless failover if one link degrades or fails.

Question 56: Which Aruba switch feature provides per-port bandwidth rate limiting?

VLAN ACL
Port Security
Traffic Shaping/Rate Limiting (Correct answer)
QoS DSCP Marking

Correct answer: Traffic Shaping/Rate Limiting

Traffic shaping and rate limiting on Aruba switches control the bandwidth available on individual ports to prevent congestion.

Question 57: What is the primary advantage of Aruba's ClientMatch technology?

It compresses wireless frames to increase throughput
It matches client MAC addresses to user identities
It encrypts client traffic end-to-end
It steers clients to the best available AP based on real-time RF conditions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It steers clients to the best available AP based on real-time RF conditions

ClientMatch continuously monitors client signal quality and steers clients to the best-performing AP or radio band, solving sticky client issues without client-side changes.

Question 58: What is the maximum valid hop count in RIPv2 before a route is considered unreachable?

16
255
32
15 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 15

RIPv2 has a maximum valid hop count of 15; a metric of 16 means the destination is unreachable and the route is not installed.

Question 59: Which Aruba feature automatically adjusts AP transmit power and channel to optimize RF coverage?

Band Steering
ClientMatch
AirMatch
ARM (Adaptive Radio Management) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ARM (Adaptive Radio Management)

ARM (Adaptive Radio Management) dynamically adjusts AP transmit power and channel selection to minimize interference and optimize coverage.

Question 60: What protocol does OSPF use at the IP layer for neighbor communication?

TCP 179
IP Protocol 88
UDP 520
IP Protocol 89 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: IP Protocol 89

OSPF uses IP Protocol number 89 for all communication including hello packets, LSAs, and database exchange between neighbors.

HPE Aruba Networking Certified Associate - Campus Access (ACA) HPE6-A85

The ACA Campus Access certification validates foundational knowledge of HPE Aruba Networking wired and wireless campus access solutions, covering switching, WLAN, routing, security, and network management. It targets entry-level network professionals and field technicians working with Aruba products.

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67%

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