Practice Test Geeks(ABA) American Board of Audiology Practice Test
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Advanced Diagnostics & Troubleshooting Flashcards

7 cards from real ABA practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A patient's ABR shows a prolonged Wave I-III interpeak interval with a normal Wave III-V interval. Where is the lesion most likely located?

    Answer: Retrocochlear (CN VIII or lower brainstem)

    A prolonged I-III interpeak interval indicates a conduction delay between the cochlea/CN VIII and the lower brainstem, suggesting retrocochlear pathology.

  2. During DPOAE testing, emissions are absent only at 4000 Hz in a patient with a flat audiogram. What is the most likely cause?

    Answer: Localized outer hair cell dysfunction at 4 kHz

    Absent DPOAEs at a single frequency with a normal audiogram suggests focal outer hair cell damage that has not yet shifted pure-tone thresholds.

  3. A patient's tympanogram shows an abnormally low static admittance (As) with a normal tympanometric peak pressure. Which condition is most consistent?

    Answer: Otosclerosis

    Otosclerosis typically produces a low or absent peak (Type As tympanogram) due to stiffening of the ossicular chain, particularly the stapes footplate.

  4. An audiologist observes elevated MEMR thresholds bilaterally with normal pure-tone thresholds and normal tympanograms. Which diagnosis is most consistent?

    Answer: Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder

    Auditory neuropathy spectrum disorder (ANSD) is characterized by elevated or absent MEMRs with normal cochlear function (OAEs present) and normal middle ear function.

  5. When performing electrocochleography (ECochG), an elevated SP/AP ratio (>0.4) is most suggestive of:

    Answer: Endolymphatic hydrops (Meniere's disease)

    An elevated SP/AP ratio reflects endolymphatic hydrops, as the distended endolymph increases the summating potential relative to the action potential.

  6. A patient presents with bilateral low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss and episodic vertigo. ECochG shows SP/AP = 0.5. What is the next most appropriate diagnostic step?

    Answer: Glycerol dehydration test

    The glycerol dehydration test can confirm endolymphatic hydrops by temporarily reducing endolymph pressure, improving hearing thresholds in Meniere's disease.

  7. During VEMP testing, a patient shows asymmetric VEMP amplitudes with a significantly reduced response on the right side. This finding most directly suggests:

    Answer: Right saccular or inferior vestibular nerve dysfunction

    Cervical VEMPs (cVEMPs) assess the saccule and inferior vestibular nerve; reduced amplitude on one side indicates dysfunction in that pathway.