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Mixed Deck — All AAT L4 Topics Flashcards

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  1. A parent company acquires 70% of a subsidiary. At the reporting date, the subsidiary's statement of financial position shows equity of £500,000, which has increased from £400,000 at the date of acquisition due to post-acquisition profits. What is the value of the non-controlling interest (NCI) to be shown in the consolidated statement of financial position?

    Answer: £150,000

    The non-controlling interest represents the portion of the subsidiary's net assets not owned by the parent. At the reporting date, the NCI's share is their percentage ownership of the subsidiary's total equity. NCI percentage = 100% - 70% = 30%. Therefore, the NCI value is 30% of £500,000 = £150,000.

  2. Which of the following statements is a mandatory component of a complete set of financial statements for a UK company that is NOT eligible for small or micro-entity reporting exemptions, according to the Companies Act 2006 and FRS 102?

    Answer: Statement of Changes in Equity

    According to FRS 102, a complete set of financial statements includes a Statement of Financial Position, a Statement of Comprehensive Income (or an Income Statement and a separate Statement of Comprehensive Income), a Statement of Changes in Equity, a Statement of Cash Flows, and related notes. The Statement of Changes in Equity is a required primary statement. While information on director's remuneration is required in the notes or a separate report, it's not a primary statement itself. Environmental reports and five-year summaries are not mandatory components for all companies.

  3. Under FRS 102, borrowing costs relating to a qualifying asset:

    Answer: May be capitalised or expensed as an accounting policy choice

    FRS 102 Section 25 gives an accounting policy choice: entities may expense borrowing costs as incurred (the benchmark) or capitalise those directly attributable to qualifying assets (the allowed alternative).

  4. A credit manager receives a cheque from a customer marked 'payment in full and final settlement' for £8,000, but the actual debt outstanding is £12,000. What is the legal risk if the credit manager cashes the cheque?

    Answer: The company may be bound by accord and satisfaction, losing the right to claim the remaining £4,000

    Cashing a cheque marked 'payment in full and final settlement' may constitute accord and satisfaction — a binding agreement to accept less than the full amount, extinguishing the right to claim the balance.

  5. Payroll controls should include which of the following?

    Answer: Segregation of duties between HR (adding/removing employees) and payroll processing, with independent authorisation of payroll

    Key payroll controls: HR maintains the personnel records (starters and leavers) separately from those who process payroll; payroll is independently authorised and reconciled; and payroll data is securely stored.

  6. In treasury risk management, a VaR (Value at Risk) measure estimates:

    Answer: The maximum expected loss on a portfolio over a given time horizon at a given confidence level, under normal market conditions

    VaR is a statistical measure quantifying the maximum potential loss on a portfolio over a specified period (e.g., 1 day, 10 days) at a given confidence level (e.g., 95%, 99%) under normal market conditions.

  7. What is the primary difference between invoice factoring and invoice discounting for a UK business seeking to improve its cash flow?

    Answer: In factoring, the provider manages the sales ledger and collects the debt; in discounting, the business retains control of collections.

    The main distinction between the two services is control over the sales ledger and debt collection. With invoice factoring, the finance provider takes over these responsibilities, and the arrangement is usually disclosed to the end customer. With invoice discounting, the business retains control over its sales ledger and chases payments itself, making it a confidential service.

  8. The Annual Investment Allowance (AIA) for 2024/25 is set at:

    Answer: £1,000,000

    The AIA provides a 100% first-year deduction on qualifying plant and machinery expenditure, permanently set at £1,000,000 per year from April 2023, incentivising business investment.

  9. Under the Companies Act 2006, a small company qualifying under the small companies regime:

    Answer: Both B and C

    Small companies under the Companies Act 2006 may prepare and file abridged accounts. They are also exempt from mandatory audit if they meet the size thresholds (turnover not exceeding £10.2m, assets not exceeding £5.1m, not more than 50 employees - meeting two of three).

  10. Which one of the following is a disallowable expense when computing the trading profits of a UK company for corporation tax purposes?

    Answer: Depreciation of office equipment

    Depreciation is an accounting concept and is not an allowable deduction for tax purposes. Instead, businesses claim capital allowances on qualifying assets, which provides tax relief for the cost of the asset over time. Staff salaries, rent, and loan interest are generally allowable as they are incurred 'wholly and exclusively' for the purposes of the trade.

  11. A company has strong internal controls over the purchases cycle. How should this affect the auditor's approach to testing?

    Answer: The auditor may be able to reduce substantive testing by performing and relying on tests of controls

    When internal controls appear strong, the auditor can test those controls (tests of controls) and, if they prove effective, reduce the extent of substantive testing required, saving time and cost.

  12. Payments on account for income tax are made on:

    Answer: 31 January and 31 July

    Two payments on account are due: the first on 31 January during the tax year, and the second on 31 July after the tax year end. Each is 50% of the previous year's income tax liability (after deducting tax deducted at source).

  13. A company revalues a property upward by £200,000. The revaluation surplus is recorded in:

    Answer: Other comprehensive income and the revaluation reserve in equity

    Under FRS 102 and IAS 16, an upward revaluation of property is recognised in other comprehensive income and accumulated in the revaluation reserve within equity; it does not pass through profit or loss.

  14. A company operates a JIT (Just-in-Time) production system. Which of the following is a key characteristic of JIT?

    Answer: Producing goods only when required by the customer

    JIT systems produce goods only in response to actual demand, eliminating the need to hold inventories and reducing waste across the production process.

  15. What does 'professional scepticism' require of an auditor?

    Answer: Maintaining a questioning mind and critically assessing audit evidence, without assuming good or bad faith

    Professional scepticism means maintaining a questioning mind and critically assessing evidence — it is neither automatic distrust nor automatic acceptance of management's assertions.

  16. Disclosures required for related party transactions in financial statements typically include:

    Answer: The nature of the relationship, the type and amount of transactions, and any outstanding balances

    FRS 102 Section 33 and IAS 24 require disclosure of the nature of the related party relationship, a description and amount of each type of transaction, and outstanding balances — enabling users to assess the impact on the financial statements.

  17. Payrolled benefits replace the P11D for certain benefits in kind. The advantage of payrolling benefits is:

    Answer: The benefit is included in the employee's pay each pay period, deducting tax in real time rather than via a coding notice adjustment

    Payrolling benefits allows the taxable value to be added to pay in real time through PAYE, so employees pay the correct tax each month rather than through an adjustment to their tax code — avoiding underpayment issues.

  18. Application controls in a computerised accounting system include:

    Answer: Input validation checks (e.g., range checks, format checks) and sequence checks on transactions

    Application controls are built into specific software applications: input validation (data type, range, and format checks), authorisation controls within the system, and completeness checks — they control individual transaction processing.

  19. A creditor is owed an undisputed debt of £10,000 by a UK limited company. Despite repeated requests for payment, the debt remains unpaid. The creditor wishes to use a formal legal process that serves as a final warning and, if ignored, can be used as evidence of insolvency to petition for the company's closure. Which of the following should be served on the company?

    Answer: A Statutory Demand

    A Statutory Demand is a formal written request for payment of an undisputed debt of over £750. If the debtor company fails to pay or challenge the demand within 21 days, the creditor can use this failure as grounds to present a winding-up petition to the court. A Letter Before Action precedes formal court proceedings, a CCJ is the result of a successful court claim, and an Attachment of Earnings Order is for individuals.

  20. Under ISA 570, if management concludes the going concern basis is appropriate but a material uncertainty exists, the auditor should:

    Answer: Issue an unmodified opinion with an Emphasis of Matter paragraph highlighting the disclosure

    If management adequately discloses the material going concern uncertainty in the notes, the auditor issues an unmodified opinion but includes an Emphasis of Matter paragraph to draw users' attention to the disclosure — provided the basis of preparation is appropriate.