The Private Pilot-Glider Exam — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airwaorthy condition?
- Pilot-in command (Correct answer)
- Owner ir operator
- Mechanic
Correct answer: Pilot-in command
According to aviation regulations (e.g., FAR 91.403(a)), the owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for ensuring the aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition. While the pilot-in-command has the final authority and responsibility to determine if the aircraft is airworthy for each flight, the ongoing maintenance responsibility rests with the owner or operator.
Question 2: For the aerotow of a glider that weighs 700 pounds, which towrope tensile strength would require the use of safety links at each end of the rope?
- 900 pounds
- 1,180 pounds
- 1,450 pounds (Correct answer)
- 1620 pounds
Correct answer: 1,450 pounds
FAA regulations (FAR 91.309(a)(3)) specify that the tensile strength of the safety link at each end of the towrope must not exceed 200% of the maximum certificated operating weight of the glider. For a 700-pound glider, the maximum allowable safety link strength is 1400 pounds (200% of 700). Therefore, a towrope tensile strength of 1,450 pounds exceeds this limit, requiring the use of safety links to ensure the rope breaks before damaging the aircraft.
Question 3: An indication that the glider has begun a turn too soon on aerotow is that the
- glider?s nose is pulled to the outside of the turn
- towplane will pitch up
- towplane?s nose is pulled to the outside of the turn (Correct answer)
- None of the above
Correct answer: towplane?s nose is pulled to the outside of the turn
During an aerotow, the glider should follow the towplane smoothly. If the glider initiates a turn too soon or turns too sharply, it will exert a side load on the towrope. This force will pull the towplane's nose towards the outside of the turn, indicating that the glider is not properly following the towplane's flight path.
Question 4: What conditions are necessary for the formation of thunderstorms?
- High humidity, high temperature, and cumulus clouds
- Lifting force, moist air, and extensive cloud cover
- High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions (Correct answer)
- High Humidity, low temperature and cumulus clouds
Correct answer: High humidity, lifting force, and unstable conditions
The three essential ingredients for thunderstorm formation are sufficient moisture (high humidity) to form clouds and precipitation, an unstable atmosphere that allows air to rise rapidly, and a lifting mechanism (lifting force) to initiate this upward movement. These conditions lead to the development of towering cumulonimbus clouds characteristic of thunderstorms.
Question 5: If the pitot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?
- The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator (Correct answer)
- The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator
- The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator
Correct answer: The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator
The pitot tube provides ram air pressure for the airspeed indicator, while the static vents provide ambient atmospheric pressure to the altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator. If both become clogged, all three of these pitot-static instruments will malfunction or provide incorrect readings, as they rely on accurate pressure differentials for their operation.
Question 6: What document must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
- A pilot certificate with an endorsement showing accomplishment of an annual flight review and a pilot logbook showing recency of experience.
- Certificates showing accomplishment of a checkout in the aircraft and a current biennial flight review.
- An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate current medical certificate if required.
According to FAA regulations (FAR 61.3), a pilot acting as pilot in command must have in their personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a valid pilot certificate and, if required for the specific flight operation, a current and appropriate medical certificate. While logbooks and flight reviews are necessary for maintaining privileges, the certificates themselves are the required documents on board.
Question 7: Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harness fastened?
- Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing and while en route.
- Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing. (Correct answer)
- Safety belts during takeoff and landing; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
Correct answer: Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.
FAA regulations (FAR 91.105) specify that flight crewmembers must keep their safety belts fastened while at their station during takeoff, landing, and while en route. Shoulder harnesses, if installed, must be fastened during takeoff and landing. This ensures maximum safety and protection during critical phases of flight and potential turbulence.
Question 8: Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
- An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
- An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
- An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
FAA regulations (FAR 91.119) establish a general minimum safe altitude rule. This rule states that an aircraft must be operated at an altitude that allows, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface. This fundamental safety principle ensures that pilots always have an escape route in case of engine failure.
Question 9: The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
- 1 mile
- 3 miles
- 5 miles (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 5 miles
According to FAA regulations for Visual Flight Rules (VFR) weather minimums (FAR 91.155), when operating above 10,000 feet Mean Sea Level (MSL) and more than 1,200 feet Above Ground Level (AGL) in controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility required is 5 statute miles. This increased visibility requirement provides an extra margin of safety at higher altitudes and speeds.
Question 10: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 24 months
- At least three flights in a powered glider.
- At least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.
- At least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: At least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
FAA regulations (FAR 61.69) specify the experience requirements for pilots acting as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider. Within the preceding 24 months, the pilot must have made at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot, or have logged at least three flights as pilot in command of a glider towed by an aircraft. This ensures recent and relevant experience for the specialized operation of glider towing.
Question 11: Which type of weather briefing should a pilot request to supplement mass disseminated data?
- An abbreviated briefing. (Correct answer)
- An outlook briefing.
- A supplemental briefing.
Correct answer: An abbreviated briefing.
An abbreviated briefing is requested when a pilot needs to update a previous briefing or supplement mass-disseminated weather data, such as from ATIS or HIWAS. This type of briefing provides specific information needed to fill gaps or confirm details without requiring a full standard briefing, saving time while ensuring comprehensive weather awareness.
Question 12: When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
- Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
- Indicates direction to take-off runway. (Correct answer)
- Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
Correct answer: Indicates direction to take-off runway.
Taxiway directional signs are yellow with black inscriptions and arrows, providing guidance to pilots on the airport surface. When turning onto a taxiway from another, these signs indicate the designation and direction of intersecting taxiways. Their purpose is to guide pilots along the correct path, often leading them towards their intended destination, such as the direction to a specific takeoff runway.
Question 13: In the Northern Hemisphere, if an aircraft is accelerated or decelerated, the magnetic compass will normally indicate
- a turn toward the south.
- correctly when on a north or south heading. (Correct answer)
- a turn momentarily.
Correct answer: correctly when on a north or south heading.
This phenomenon is known as acceleration error or 'ANDS' (Accelerate North, Decelerate South) error for magnetic compasses in the Northern Hemisphere. Due to the dip of the Earth's magnetic field, acceleration causes the compass to indicate a turn to the north when on an east or west heading, and deceleration causes it to indicate a turn to the south. However, when the aircraft is on a pure north or south heading, the magnetic compass will indicate correctly, as the forces causing the error are aligned with the compass card's axis of rotation and do not induce a false turn.
Question 14: How many feet will a glider sink in 10 nautical miles if its lift\/drag ration 23:1
- 2,400 feet
- 2,600 feet (Correct answer)
- 4,300 feet
Correct answer: 2,600 feet
The lift/drag ratio (L/D) of 23:1 means that for every 23 units of horizontal distance traveled, the glider loses 1 unit of altitude. First, convert 10 nautical miles to feet: 10 NM * 6076 feet/NM = 60,760 feet. Then, divide the horizontal distance by the L/D ratio to find the altitude loss: 60,760 feet / 23 = 2,641.74 feet. Rounding to the nearest hundred, 2,600 feet is the closest answer.
Question 15: At approximately what altitude above the surface would the pilot expect the base of cumuliform clouds if the surface air temperature is 82? F and the dewpoint is 38?F?
- 8,000 AGL
- 9,000 AGL
- 10,000 AGL (Correct answer)
- 11,000 AGL
Correct answer: 10,000 AGL
The altitude of the cloud base for cumuliform clouds can be estimated using the formula: (Surface Temperature - Dewpoint) / 4.4 * 1000 feet. In this case, (82°F - 38°F) = 44°F. So, 44 / 4.4 = 10. Multiplying by 1000 gives 10,000 feet AGL. This formula provides a quick estimate of the lifting condensation level, where water vapor condenses to form clouds.
The Private Pilot-Glider Exam
Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an aircraft in airwaorthy condition?