OFA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield OFA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. When splinting a lower leg fracture, where should the padding be concentrated? → At bony prominences and under the joints
2. Which statement BEST describes the 'mechanism of injury' (MOI) concept in emergency assessment? → The forces and events that caused the injury
3. The acronym SAMPLE, used during secondary assessment, stands for Signs/Symptoms, Allergies, Medications, Pertinent history, Last oral intake, and: → Events leading to the emergency
4. A worker receives a chemical splash to the eyes. The correct first aid treatment is to irrigate the eyes with water for a minimum of: → 15 to 20 minutes
5. Which observation during a scene size-up would MOST indicate a potential spinal injury mechanism? → Worker fell more than 3 times their body height
6. When you find an unresponsive worker, after ensuring scene safety, your next step is to: → Tap the shoulder and shout to check responsiveness
7. What is the target compression rate during adult CPR? → 100–120 compressions per minute
8. In Occupational First Aid Certification, what is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting an initial assessment? → To establish a baseline and identify needs for appropriate action
9. When using a bag-valve-mask (BVM) for rescue breathing, what indicates an appropriate tidal volume has been delivered? → Visible, gentle chest rise
10. What is the first step when managing a chemical burn at the workplace? → Flush the affected area with water for at least 15 minutes
11. Personal protective equipment (PPE) for an OFA first aider responding to a bleeding emergency should at minimum include: → Disposable gloves and eye protection
12. Which risk management approach is MOST effective for OFA professionals when evaluating potential workplace hazards? → Proactive hazard identification and assessment
13. What is an avulsion injury? → Tissue that is torn partially or completely away from the body
14. How can you ensure bystander safety? → Assign roles and ensure they are out of danger
15. Which of the following is the correct order of the primary survey steps (DRABC)? → Danger, Response, Airway, Breathing, Circulation
16. Which of the following is the BEST indicator that a burn injury requires transport to a hospital emergency room? → The burn involves the face, hands, genitals, or more than 10% of body surface area
17. When managing multiple casualties at a workplace incident, which triage tag color indicates a patient who is deceased or has unsurvivable injuries? → Black
18. When should an AED be used during a cardiac emergency? → As soon as it's available
19. Which of the following is a key part of workplace safety procedures? → Conduct regular safety drills
20. During CPR, rescue breaths should be delivered over how long a period to avoid gastric inflation? → About 1 second each, enough to see the chest rise
21. A worker is unconscious and breathing with a gurgling sound. What does this most likely indicate? → Fluid or secretions partially blocking the airway
22. When a patient has a pulse but is not breathing, what is the correct rate for delivering rescue breaths to an adult? → One breath every 5–6 seconds
23. Which of the following workplace injuries requires IMMEDIATE activation of emergency services (911)? → An employee who is unconscious and unresponsive
24. Which condition is a contraindication to inserting an oropharyngeal airway (OPA)? → The patient is conscious or semi-conscious with a gag reflex
25. In Occupational First Aid Certification, what is the PRIMARY purpose of conducting regular safety drills and exercises? → To ensure personnel can respond effectively in emergencies
26. During two-rescuer CPR, the second rescuer arrives and takes over compressions. What should the compressor change be timed with? → Every 2 minutes or after 5 cycles of CPR
27. Under OSHA's 1910.151 standard, what is required for workplaces that are NOT in near proximity to a hospital or clinic? → A person trained in first aid must be available on-site
28. In emergency response, 'consent to treat' from a conscious adult patient is considered implied when: → The patient is unresponsive and unable to refuse
29. When using an epinephrine auto-injector (EpiPen) for anaphylaxis, where is it administered? → Into the outer mid-thigh
30. Why should a first aider avoid moving an injured person unnecessarily? → Because it can worsen their injuries