NPTE-PT General Exam 4 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A physical therapist reviews an ECG rhythm strip and notes a heart rate of 150 bpm with no identifiable P waves and an irregular R-R interval. This finding is most consistent with:
- Sinus tachycardia
- Atrial fibrillation (Correct answer)
- Ventricular tachycardia
- First-degree AV block
Correct answer: Atrial fibrillation
Atrial fibrillation is characterized by the absence of organized P waves, an irregularly irregular R-R interval, and often a rapid ventricular rate.
Question 2: A patient with T6 complete spinal cord injury is being repositioned from supine to sitting. The therapist observes the patient develop a pounding headache, blurred vision, and profuse sweating above the level of injury. The most appropriate immediate action is:
- Lay the patient supine and elevate the legs
- Sit the patient upright and identify the noxious stimulus (Correct answer)
- Administer oxygen at 6 L/min via nasal cannula
- Call for an emergency code team immediately
Correct answer: Sit the patient upright and identify the noxious stimulus
These are signs of autonomic dysreflexia; the first step is to sit the patient upright (to drop blood pressure) and quickly identify and remove the triggering noxious stimulus.
Question 3: Which muscle is the primary restraint to anterior translation of the tibia on the femur?
- Posterior cruciate ligament
- Anterior cruciate ligament (Correct answer)
- Medial collateral ligament
- Popliteus
Correct answer: Anterior cruciate ligament
The ACL is the primary restraint to anterior tibial translation, which is why the Lachman and anterior drawer tests assess ACL integrity.
Question 4: A patient presents with insidious onset of cervical pain and numbness radiating into the ring and little fingers with weakness of grip. Which cervical level is most likely involved?
- C5
- C6
- C7
- C8 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: C8
C8 radiculopathy produces sensory changes in the ring and little fingers (ulnar two digits) and weakness in hand intrinsics and grip.
Question 5: Which pharmacological class is most commonly associated with increased fall risk in older adults due to orthostatic hypotension?
- NSAIDs
- Antihypertensives and diuretics (Correct answer)
- Proton pump inhibitors
- Statins
Correct answer: Antihypertensives and diuretics
Antihypertensives and diuretics reduce blood pressure and can cause orthostatic hypotension, significantly increasing fall risk in the elderly.
Question 6: According to the Guide to Physical Therapist Practice, which term describes the anticipated level of improvement and time to achieve it, documented at the start of an episode of care?
- Diagnosis
- Prognosis (Correct answer)
- Plan of care
- Outcomes
Correct answer: Prognosis
The prognosis is the determination of the predicted optimal level of improvement in function and the time needed to reach that level.
Question 7: A therapist performs joint mobilization at the glenohumeral joint. To increase shoulder abduction, which mobilization direction should be applied to the humeral head?
- Superior glide
- Inferior glide (Correct answer)
- Anterior glide
- Posterior glide
Correct answer: Inferior glide
According to the concave-convex rule, the convex humeral head glides inferiorly when the humerus is abducted, so inferior mobilization restores this motion.
NPTE-PT General Exam 4
A physical therapist reviews an ECG rhythm strip and notes a heart rate of 150 bpm with no identifiable P waves and an irregular R-R interval.
This finding is most consistent with: