NPTE-PT NPTE-PT Test Therapeutic Modalities Application Questions and Answers 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A physical therapist is treating a patient with acute lateral epicondylitis. Which therapeutic modality is MOST appropriate for pain management during the inflammatory phase?
- Continuous ultrasound at 1.5 W/cm²
- Phonophoresis with hydrocortisone (Correct answer)
- Paraffin wax bath
- Fluidotherapy at 118°F
Correct answer: Phonophoresis with hydrocortisone
Phonophoresis with hydrocortisone delivers anti-inflammatory medication transdermally to the inflamed tendon using ultrasound as the driving force.
Question 2: A patient with a 3-week-old grade II MCL sprain is referred for physical therapy. What is the PRIMARY reason for selecting pulsed ultrasound over continuous ultrasound at this stage?
- Pulsed ultrasound produces greater thermal effects
- Pulsed ultrasound minimizes thermal buildup in subacute tissue (Correct answer)
- Continuous ultrasound cannot penetrate to the MCL
- Pulsed ultrasound has a higher beam nonuniformity ratio
Correct answer: Pulsed ultrasound minimizes thermal buildup in subacute tissue
Pulsed ultrasound is preferred in the subacute phase because it provides nonthermal mechanical effects while minimizing heat accumulation in healing tissue.
Question 3: When applying iontophoresis with dexamethasone to treat plantar fasciitis, which electrode placement is correct?
- Dexamethasone under the positive electrode, dispersive pad on the dorsum
- Dexamethasone under the negative electrode, dispersive pad on the dorsum (Correct answer)
- Dexamethasone under the positive electrode, dispersive pad on the calf
- Dexamethasone under the negative electrode, dispersive pad on the calf
Correct answer: Dexamethasone under the negative electrode, dispersive pad on the dorsum
Dexamethasone is negatively charged and must be placed under the negative (cathode) electrode so that like charges repel the medication into the tissue.
Question 4: A physical therapist selects shortwave diathermy for a patient with chronic low back pain and deep muscle guarding. Which of the following is an ABSOLUTE contraindication?
- Presence of an intrauterine device (IUD)
- Obesity with adipose tissue greater than 2 cm
- Acute inflammation in the lumbar paraspinals
- Metal jewelry that cannot be removed from the treatment area (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Metal jewelry that cannot be removed from the treatment area
Metal in the treatment field concentrates electromagnetic energy and can cause deep tissue burns, making it an absolute contraindication for shortwave diathermy.
Question 5: A patient recovering from a total knee arthroplasty is 6 weeks post-operative with persistent quadriceps inhibition. Which neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) parameter setting is MOST appropriate to facilitate quadriceps re-education?
- Frequency 2-4 Hz, ramp up 1 sec, on:off ratio 1:1
- Frequency 35-50 Hz, ramp up 2-3 sec, on:off ratio 1:5 (Correct answer)
- Frequency 100-150 Hz, ramp up 0 sec, on:off ratio 10:1
- Frequency 1 Hz, ramp up 5 sec, on:off ratio 1:1
Correct answer: Frequency 35-50 Hz, ramp up 2-3 sec, on:off ratio 1:5
A frequency of 35-50 Hz produces a tetanic contraction suitable for strengthening, and the 1:5 on:off ratio prevents rapid fatigue in a weakened quadriceps.
Question 6: A physical therapist applies cryotherapy to a patient ankle immediately after an inversion sprain. The patient reports intense burning followed by aching and then numbness. What is the BEST clinical response?
- Remove the ice immediately due to risk of cold-induced nerve injury
- Continue treatment as these sensations represent the normal stages of cryotherapy (Correct answer)
- Switch to intermittent compression only
- Reduce application time to 5 minutes and reassess
Correct answer: Continue treatment as these sensations represent the normal stages of cryotherapy
The sequential sensations of cold, burning, aching, and numbness are the four recognized stages of cryotherapy and indicate a normal physiologic response.
A physical therapist is treating a patient with acute lateral epicondylitis.
Which therapeutic modality is MOST appropriate for pain management during the inflammatory phase?