NAB Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield NAB facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A broadcast group's risk committee requires that any risk rated 'critical' be escalated to the CEO within 24 hours. This policy establishes: → A risk escalation threshold
2. What does a playout automation system primarily control in a broadcast master control environment? → The scheduling and switching of on-air content and commercials
3. What is a corrective action in National Association of Broadcasters Certification quality systems? → A systematic response to eliminate causes of nonconformity and prevent recurrence
4. Which manifest-based adaptive streaming format was developed by Apple and uses .m3u8 playlist files? → HLS (HTTP Live Streaming)
5. Which section of the Communications Act prohibits broadcast stations from airing obscene material at any time and indecent material between 6 a.m. and 10 p.m.? → Section 1464
6. How do NAB professionals effectively transfer training knowledge to workplace practice? → Through supervised practice, mentoring, and progressive independence with feedback
7. How do continuing education requirements benefit NAB certified professionals? → They ensure professionals stay current with evolving industry practices
8. What role does data analytics play in National Association of Broadcasters Certification decision-making? → It supports evidence-based decisions by identifying patterns and trends in data
9. A broadcast station in a competitive market learns that a competitor is fabricating viewer ratings data. The ethical response is to: → Report the fraudulent practice to industry bodies and regulatory authorities
10. How do NAB professionals evaluate the quality of research evidence? → By assessing methodology, sample size, peer review, and relevance
11. What does GRP stand for and what does it measure? → Gross Rating Points — the sum of all ratings for a schedule of commercials
12. A broadcaster must file for license renewal how far in advance of the license expiration date? → 4 months
13. Which codec is most commonly used for mezzanine-level video compression in broadcast production workflows? → XDCAM (MPEG-2 IBP) at 50 Mb/s
14. Which of the following best describes 'loudness normalization' as required by the CALM Act? → Maintaining average program loudness at -24 LKFS/LUFS
15. Which lighting setup uses three distinct light sources: a key light, fill light, and back light? → Three-point lighting
16. Which provision of Section 315 of the Communications Act exempts bona fide news interviews from the equal opportunities obligation? → The bona fide news interview exemption
17. What should a broadcaster do when making corrections? → Issue corrections clearly and promptly
18. What is 'time spent listening' (TSL) as used in radio research? → The average number of quarter-hours a listener tunes to a station per week
19. What is the importance of data security in NAB digital applications? → Protecting sensitive information from unauthorized access and breaches is essential
20. Which modulation technique does ATSC 3.0 (NextGen TV) use for its physical layer? → OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing)
21. How should NAB professionals stay current with regulatory changes? → Actively monitor updates through professional associations and continuing education
22. A broadcast station implements dual power feeds from separate utility substations to reduce transmitter downtime risk. This is an example of: → Risk mitigation through redundancy
23. What does DMA stand for in broadcast audience measurement? → Designated Market Area
24. A radio station's morning host makes an on-air joke that demeans a racial group. The most appropriate management response is to: → Investigate promptly, issue a public apology, and take corrective action with the host
25. In digital broadcasting, what is the purpose of a PCR (Program Clock Reference)? → To synchronize the decoder's clock with the encoder
26. What is the role of internal audits in National Association of Broadcasters Certification compliance management? → They verify adherence to regulations and identify areas needing improvement
27. When a broadcast station airs a 'simulcast' of programming from a separately owned station in the same market, FCC attribution rules may treat this as what? → A local marketing agreement (LMA) requiring disclosure
28. When assessing the risk of a transmitter fire, which formula is used to calculate the risk level? → Risk = Likelihood × Impact
29. What is the primary function of the FCC's Enforcement Bureau in relation to broadcast stations? → To investigate complaints and enforce FCC regulations
30. Under FCC rules, a broadcast station that changes ownership must file which application? → Form 314 or Form 315 — Application for Assignment or Transfer of Control