MPJE Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield MPJE facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Under the Combat Methamphetamine Epidemic Act (CMEA), what is the daily purchase limit for pseudoephedrine products sold behind the counter? → 3.6 grams
2. The biennial inventory for controlled substances must be taken at what time of the business day? → At the start or close of business on the inventory date
3. Which of the following best describes the pharmacist-to-technician ratio concept found in most state pharmacy practice acts? → A maximum number of technicians one pharmacist may supervise at a given time
4. Illinois law requires pharmacies to report theft or significant loss of controlled substances to the DEA within what timeframe? → Immediately by phone and 7 days by DEA Form 106
5. Under the Controlled Substances Act, which entity has primary authority to schedule, reschedule, or deschedule a controlled substance? → The DEA, with input from HHS/FDA
6. Which ISO classification is required for the Primary Engineering Control (PEC) used when preparing high-risk or Category 2 sterile compounded preparations? → ISO Class 5
7. Under federal law, which of the following is NOT a required element of a valid controlled substance prescription? → Prescriber's NPI number
8. Which drug requires enrollment in the iPLEDGE REMS program due to severe teratogenicity risks? → Isotretinoin
9. Which Illinois agency is primarily responsible for enforcing the Illinois Pharmacy Practice Act? → Illinois Department of Financial and Professional Regulation (IDFPR)
10. A 503B outsourcing facility differs from a 503A compounding pharmacy primarily in that a 503B facility: → Can compound large batches without patient-specific prescriptions
11. Under federal law, which of the following practitioners is NOT authorized to prescribe Schedule II controlled substances? → Registered nurses (RN)
12. When a patient declines counseling, the pharmacist should: → Document the declination and dispense the prescription
13. A state board of pharmacy may place conditions on a pharmacist's license renewal for which of the following reasons? → A finding of substance use disorder by the board
14. Which of the following substances is correctly classified as Schedule IV under federal law? → Alprazolam
15. Which entity has primary authority to discipline a pharmacist for violations of federal pharmacy law? → The DEA for controlled substance violations and the state board for other violations
16. Which of the following statements about transferring a Schedule III controlled substance prescription between pharmacies is correct? → Schedule III prescriptions may be transferred only once between pharmacies
17. Under the FD&C Act, the 'substantial evidence' standard for drug approval requires: → One well-controlled clinical investigation plus confirmatory evidence
18. A patient's legal guardian requests full access to a minor patient's pharmacy records. The pharmacist should: → Consult state law, as minors may have privacy rights for certain confidential services
19. Which FD&C Act provision requires manufacturers to report serious and unexpected adverse drug experiences to the FDA? → Postmarket safety reporting requirements (21 CFR Part 314)
20. The following conditions must be met, except one, for a medicine to be declared pharmaceutically equivalent. → Same exipients
21. Under the FD&C Act, which term describes a drug whose labeling fails to bear required warnings? → Misbranded
22. Which amendment to the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act first required manufacturers to prove both safety AND efficacy before marketing a new drug? → Kefauver-Harris Amendment of 1962
23. A drug product recalled due to a reasonable probability that use will cause serious adverse health consequences or death is classified as a: → Class I recall
24. A pharmacy receives a drug product with labeling that lacks the required National Drug Code (NDC) number. Under the FD&C Act, this drug is considered: → Misbranded
25. A retail pharmacy discovers a theft of controlled substances. Under the CSA, the pharmacy must notify the DEA field office within: → Immediately upon discovery by phone, and submit DEA Form 106 within 1 business day
26. A preceptor pharmacist overseeing a pharmacy intern must generally hold: → An active pharmacist license in the state where training occurs
27. In Illinois, a pharmacist who receives an oral prescription for a Schedule III controlled substance must reduce it to writing within how many hours? → 72 hours
28. Under the DEA regulations, a mid-level practitioner (MLP) may be authorized to prescribe controlled substances only if: → The MLP holds a valid DEA registration and has prescriptive authority under state law
29. When a pharmacist counsels a patient on warfarin therapy, which topic is MOST critical to emphasize? → Foods, OTC drugs, and herbal supplements that can affect INR levels
30. A pharmacy student completing their APPE rotations is classified as a: → Pharmacy intern only if registered with the state board of pharmacy