MLS Clinical Procedures & Protocols 3 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which quality control rule is violated when two consecutive QC values fall more than 2 standard deviations from the mean on the same side?
- Westgard 1-3s rule
- Westgard 2-2s rule (Correct answer)
- Westgard R-4s rule
- Westgard 1-2s warning rule
Correct answer: Westgard 2-2s rule
The 2-2s rule is violated when two consecutive controls exceed ±2 SD in the same direction, signaling a systematic error.
Question 2: A lab receives a request for a STAT troponin on a patient in the ED. The tube arrives unlabeled. What should the MLS do?
- Label it using the requisition and process immediately
- Call the ED to verify and relabel, then process if confirmed
- Reject the specimen and document per policy (Correct answer)
- Process the test and document the discrepancy afterward
Correct answer: Reject the specimen and document per policy
Unlabeled specimens must be rejected per CLSI and accreditation standards because mislabeling errors can cause patient harm; the ED must recollect with proper labeling.
Question 3: What does a corrected reticulocyte count (reticulocyte production index, RPI) below 2 indicate?
- Adequate bone marrow response to anemia
- Hypoproliferative or ineffective erythropoiesis (Correct answer)
- Hemolytic process with increased RBC destruction
- Polycythemia vera with erythroid hyperplasia
Correct answer: Hypoproliferative or ineffective erythropoiesis
An RPI <2 suggests the bone marrow is not producing enough red cells to compensate for anemia, pointing to hypoproliferative or ineffective erythropoiesis.
Question 4: When performing a Gram stain, decolorization with acetone-alcohol is the most critical step. Over-decolorization will cause:
- Gram-positive organisms to appear purple
- Gram-negative organisms to appear purple
- Gram-positive organisms to appear pink/red (Correct answer)
- No change because the safranin counterstain corrects this
Correct answer: Gram-positive organisms to appear pink/red
Over-decolorization removes the crystal violet-iodine complex from gram-positive organisms, causing them to stain pink with safranin and appear false gram-negative.
Question 5: A 24-hour urine is received for creatinine clearance. The volume is 850 mL. The serum creatinine is 1.2 mg/dL and the urine creatinine is 90 mg/dL. The patient weighs 70 kg and is 175 cm tall (BSA 1.8 m²). What should the MLS check FIRST before calculating clearance?
- Verify the specimen was kept refrigerated during collection
- Confirm the collection start and end times are documented (Correct answer)
- Repeat the serum creatinine on a new specimen
- Check if the patient took any nephrotoxic drugs
Correct answer: Confirm the collection start and end times are documented
Accurate timed collection is the most common source of error; without verified start and stop times, the volume cannot be correctly interpreted.
Question 6: Which blood component is stored at 20–24°C with continuous agitation?
- Packed red blood cells
- Fresh frozen plasma
- Cryoprecipitate
- Platelets (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Platelets
Platelets must be stored at room temperature (20–24°C) with continuous gentle agitation to prevent aggregation and maintain viability for up to 5–7 days.
Question 7: A cerebrospinal fluid specimen arrives with three tubes numbered 1, 2, and 3. Which tube should be sent to microbiology for culture?
- Tube 1, because it has the freshest sample
- Tube 2, because it is the cleanest for cell counts
- Tube 3, because it is least likely to be contaminated with skin flora from the tap (Correct answer)
- Any tube, because all CSF tubes are equivalent for culture
Correct answer: Tube 3, because it is least likely to be contaminated with skin flora from the tap
Tube 3 is sent for culture because later tubes are less likely to be contaminated with skin organisms introduced at the time of the lumbar puncture.
Which quality control rule is violated when two consecutive QC values fall more than 2 standard deviations from the mean on the same side?