Question 1: The World Systems Theory divides the world into three subcategories: core, periphery, and semi-periphery countries. Which of the following statements best describe countries in the semi-periphery?

• An economy centralized around one natural resource.
• Small percentage of very high class individuals.
• Strong central government.
• A diversified and developed economy. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A diversified and developed economy.

Answer Explanation: (D) <br> This question, if encountered, would be difficult due to the fact that semi-periphery countries is actually a definition of a transition state both from core to periphery and in the opposite direction. Thus, there are no real strong defining characteristics, so elimination of answers will be needed. Strong central government more accurately defines core countries. Answers B and D describe periphery countries. Think of semi-periphery countries as those that do not have much global influence, but are not susceptible to it either. That should allow for the correct answer.

Question 2: In the United States, the Industrial Revolution saw a major drive toward urbanization for living areas. Which of the following is NOT a benefit to people who relocate from rural to urban regions?

• Improved utilities
• Increased transportation
• Decrease in gentrification (Correct answer)
• Job opportunities

Correct answer: Decrease in gentrification

Answer Explanation: (C) <br> Opportunities and, conversely, challenges of urbanization have not drastically change since the initial explosion in the U.S. in the early 1900s. Infrastructure is widely available in cities, which leads to benefits outlined in the first three answers. However, a process called reurbanization, which is the second wave of urbanization that follows the first decline of a city, usually targets old areas where people who do not have the resources to move out of the city get pushed out of. This leads to substantial gentrification along these borders.

Question 3: Karl Marx proposed the Conflict Theory, which is founded on the idea that power determines how people interact in society. Which of the following assertions is the most accurate representation of the Conflict Theory?

• People act based on their past experiences to view society through a lens.
• Institutions will only change when they have to in order to meet demand and to the minimum necessary.
• Society consists of one group of people who desire change and one group of people who are content with status quo. (Correct answer)
• Society agrees on the specific value of an item that otherwise would not have intrinsic worth.

Correct answer: Society consists of one group of people who desire change and one group of people who are content with status quo.

Answer Explanation: (C) <br> C is the answer that most closely correlate to the Marx theory. In this theory, the group that is content with the status quo is the group in power. Answer B correlates closer to Functionalism, which states that institutions and the population exist in a balance. Answer D describes social constructionism. Answer A is consistent with symbolic interactionism, which at its heart states that the world is created by people interacting with it.

Question 4: The rational choice theory is founded on the idea that acts are chosen based on the individual's benefit. Completeness, transitivity, and variable independence are the three essential axioms of rational theory. What kind of system is most appropriately described?

• Patriarchal
• Hierarchical (Correct answer)
• Oligarchic
• Matriarchal

Correct answer: Hierarchical

Answer Explanation: (B) <br> The key to answering this question is to know the definitions of the components of rational choice theory. Completeness in this context means that actions can be ranked according to each other. Transitivity defines the fact that if an action is considered higher rank than a second, and a third action is considered lesser than the second, that the first action can be considered higher than the third. The final component, independence, defines the fact that additional variables do not change ranking. B, C, and D all place benefit to some individuals over others that would not change depending on the individual, which is not in concordance with this theory.

Question 5: A group of engineers working on signal lights for planes that may be used to guide them to runways is trying to figure out how bright the light needs to be for the pilot to notice the tower from a mile away. They adjust the brightness of the light to a test level and establish contact with an oncoming pilot. The pilot claims he can't see the light while he's a mile away from the tower. What would this be called in terms of Signal Detection Theory?

• Miss (Correct answer)
• Correct rejection
• Hit
• False alarm

Correct answer: Miss

Answer Explanation: (A) <br> Signal Detection Theory deals with the expectation of a signal and the corresponding reality that it is accurately perceived. Hit and miss describe reactions by the observer when the stimulus is present. False alarm (false positive) and correct rejection describe reactions by the observer when the stimulus is absent.

Question 6: An individual comes to the clinic for an initial evaluation and to begin treatment. The patient was born as a 46-year-old man named XY, but she identifies as a woman. She/Her are her preferred pronouns. Furthermore, she is only sexually active with females. What would you use to characterize this person's gender and sexual orientation?

• Cis-gender, homosexual
• Transgender, homosexual (Correct answer)
• Cis-gender, heterosexual
• Transgender, heterosexual

Correct answer: Transgender, homosexual

Answer Explanation: (B) <br> Gender discussions are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine as of late. In order to appropriately address this, these definitions have become more important. Gender is spoken of in relation to what biological sex the infant has, whereas sexual orientation is described in relation to the individual’s identified gender.

Question 7: Samantha is a college student who is working with her therapist to improve her self-esteem and self-efficacy. After three months of counseling, she has observed a significant improvement in her capacity to handle problems. Which of the following is NOT an approach her therapist would recommend for increasing her sense of self-efficacy?

• Avoid potential pitfalls by withholding from tasks she is not proficient in. (Correct answer)
• Seek positive feedback from friends.
• Put in daily practice on the tasks she wishes to improve on.
• Find others her age and ability who excel at tasks she is interested in.

Correct answer: Avoid potential pitfalls by withholding from tasks she is not proficient in.

Answer Explanation: (A) <br> Self-efficacy correlates most closely to a person’s sense of ability within a specific set of tasks. The four known ways to improve self-efficacy are mastery of experience, social modeling, social persuasion, and psychological responses. Avoiding tasks, however, is an indication of weak self-efficacy.

Question 8: A scientist conducting research on hearing aids fitted 30 mice with the newest technology after they were genetically changed to lose their hearing and were tested to press a lever when they heard a bell. This was set to a range of power levels. Twenty mice pressed the lever at 80% power. 15 mice pressed the lever at 70 percent power. Ten mice pressed the lever with 60 percent power. Which of the following is the absolute threshold for hearing the decibels produced by the bell?

• 70% (Correct answer)
• Not enough information given.
• 80%
• 60%

Correct answer: 70%

Answer Explanation: (B) <br> This question rests exclusively on the knowledge of what defines the absolute threshold of sensation, which is when 50% of the time, the stimulus is recorded. In this question, with the information given, that would mean the power setting that would allow 15 mice to observe the sound of the bell. Below this would be subliminal.

Question 9: Tom is a nationally recognized cellist who has recently accepted a scholarship to play in the orchestra at a prominent university. He was handed a package of sheet music during the summer to master by the fall semester. When it comes to his work, Tom is a perfectionist. He constantly compares himself to better musicians and is quite critical of himself when a section of one of his pieces is not mastered. Which of the following statements most accurately describes Tom?

• High self-esteem, strong self-efficacy, internal locus of control
• Low self-esteem, strong self-efficacy, internal locus of control (Correct answer)
• Low self-esteem, low self-efficacy, internal locus of control
• Low self-esteem, strong self-efficacy, external locus of control

Correct answer: Low self-esteem, strong self-efficacy, internal locus of control

Answer Explanation: (B) <br> It is important to remember for these questions that self-efficacy refers to a specific task, whereas self-esteem refers to the respect one has for themselves. Perfectionists, especially those who are known to be hard on themselves, often have an internal locus of control, blaming themselves for failures.

Question 10: New York City has a population of nearly 7 million people from all walks of life. Although the city has its own distinct qualities, there are various smaller districts, mainly clusters of people of the same nationality who follow the customs of their previous home country. For example, greeting individuals with cheek kisses is still usual in Little Italy, a small village within the city. What kind of phenomenon is this an example of?

• Culture lag
• Subculture (Correct answer)
• Counterculture
• Microculture

Correct answer: Subculture

Answer Explanation: (B) <br> The definitions of these terms are very close together, which make their distinctions important to know to answer questions. In order for customs to be considered counterculture, they must go against norms of the larger area within which they are encapsulated. For a custom to be considered a microculture, it must not be long enough to exist throughout a lifetime. Culture lag can commonly be mixed with retained customs, but it is important to know that lag refers to practices that are outdated by the newer form. Cheek kisses do not go against any of New York’s traditions, so it would just fall under subculture.

Question 11: On a weekday, a psychology study was set up directly outside the gym on a college campus. Chocolate chip cookies were handed out directly outside the door, and a sign was posted 15 feet down the hall asking visitors to avoid taking the stairs, forcing them to walk around in a longer corridor. Apart from the warning, there were no obstacles to accessing the stairs. The results showed that those who accepted a sweet from the platter were twice as likely to use the longer hallway than those who rejected. What psychological notion is this an illustration of?

• Ego depletion (Correct answer)
• Tyranny of choice
• Learned helplessness
• Insecure attachment

Correct answer: Ego depletion

Answer Explanation: (A) <br> This question tests the concept of ego depletion. Ego depletion is the theory that self control is an exhaustible resource, and that, in individuals who are tested on their self control, they will be less and less likely to resist temptations in sequential order. In this study, the students who refused the cookie then had less self control to avoid using the stairs.

Question 12: David is a senior in high school who aspires to be an engineer. He scores a F on his first test in calculus II sophomore year. Which of the following reactions to this experience would indicate that David is more likely to improve in future exams?

• He says the teacher graded his exam harder because she doesn’t like him.
• He decides that the first test is always harder than the others.
• He critiques his study methods and tries to find out which led to poor returns. (Correct answer)
• He says it was due to some home circumstances that won’t be present during the next exam.

Correct answer: He critiques his study methods and tries to find out which led to poor returns.

Answer Explanation: <br> This question focuses on the differences between internal and external locus of control. People with internal locus of control blame outcomes on their personal efforts and abilities, while those with an external locus of control contributes outcomes to fate or forces beyond their control. People with an internal locus of control tend to have more success following failures.

Question 13: To survive, humans need a lot of help from the outside world. Without water, air, and other essentials, no one can survive. Thankfully, the human brain is programmed to seek out these resources as they become exhausted, preventing injury to the individual. However, the downside is that they can provide too much incentive and hence become a source of temptation. Which of the following statements best describes when a desire has turned into a temptation?

• A marathon runner seeks out water after finishing a race.
• A person desiring to lose weight makes a late night snack to quell a craving.
• A person pauses their show on TV in order to grab a blanket because they are cold.
• A free diver delays leaving the beach after a dive by a few minutes in order to regain their breath.

Answer Explanation: <br> Desires become temptations when they conflict with longer-term goals in order to satisfy short-term desires. A, C, and D are all desires that improve the individual’s long term outcome. Only A sacrifices the long-term goal for the short term.

Question 14: A wrestler seeking to lose weight for a December competition sets a goal of losing 30 pounds in two months. Which of the following is NOT an effective way to limit his caloric intake?

• Hide snack food out of sight within his house. (Correct answer)
• Study at a health smoothie store instead of a coffee shop.
• Reward himself with a savory meal every Saturday for meeting his calorie goals.
• Snap himself with a rubber band when he eats a high calorie snack.

Correct answer: Hide snack food out of sight within his house.

The question asks which method is *NOT* an effective way to limit caloric intake. While hiding snack food might reduce impulsive eating by removing visual cues, it doesn't eliminate the food from the environment or address underlying cravings. If the individual knows the food is still present and accessible, they can still retrieve and consume it, making it a less effective long-term strategy for truly limiting overall caloric intake compared to other behavioral interventions.

Question 15: A young child is taken to a psychologist to have their home circumstances evaluated. The mother is on one side and the psychologist is on the other while the child is placed in the middle of the floor. The mother then departs for a brief while before returning. Which of the following would be a red flag during this assessment?

• Crying and returning to the mother upon return.
• Exploring the room before the mother leaves.
• Decreased exploration when the mother is out of the room.
• Avoiding the mother upon return. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Avoiding the mother upon return.

This scenario describes the 'Strange Situation' experiment, designed to assess attachment styles. Avoiding the mother upon her return is a key indicator of an insecure-avoidant attachment style. In this pattern, the child shows little distress when the mother leaves and actively avoids or ignores her upon her return, which is considered a red flag for healthy attachment development.

Question 16: Vygotsky's sociocultural development theory tries to explain the relationship between the mental functions that children are born with and how they develop into adulthood. The zone of proximal development is a key component of this. Which of the following statements best defines a person in the proximal development zone?

• A concert flute player falls short of finishing a piece that has a very complex ending without mistakes
• A baseball player hits baseballs from a tee in order to build muscle memory.
• A high diver takes instruction from her coach to improve her form on a specific move. (Correct answer)
• A high school English student submits a paper for review by his professor.

Correct answer: A high diver takes instruction from her coach to improve her form on a specific move.

Vygotsky's Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD) refers to the gap between what a learner can achieve independently and what they can achieve with guidance from a more knowledgeable other (MKO). The high diver receiving instruction from her coach to improve a specific move perfectly illustrates this, as she is learning a skill just beyond her current independent ability with expert assistance.

Question 17: A young woman visits the clinic because she believes her "heart is racing." Her pulse is within normal limits when measured. During the conversation, you learn that she is frequently concerned about a variety of issues. In fact, she can't recall a time when she didn't have some event replaying in her mind. She acknowledges that she seeks out relationships to boost her self-esteem and that she stays in them for far too long because she is afraid of being alone. What personality type does this person belong to?

• Cluster B
• Cluster A
• This does not seem like a personality disorder.
• Cluster C (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Cluster C

The young woman's symptoms—frequent worry, chronic anxiety, seeking relationships for self-esteem, and fear of being alone—are characteristic of Cluster C personality disorders. This cluster includes anxious and fearful disorders like Dependent Personality Disorder, which is marked by an excessive need to be cared for, leading to submissive and clinging behavior and fears of separation.

Question 18: A young man working with a therapist to become more productive is sharing many of his ambitions as he grew up, as well as how he believes they have affected him. The therapist believes the young man's development is trapped in a stage that is reflected in his failure to maintain his residence clean, based on his discernment. What stage of psychosexual development would this young man be fixated on, according to Freud's theory?

• Latent
• Oral
• Anal (Correct answer)
• Genital
• Phallic

Correct answer: Anal

According to Freud's psychosexual stages, the anal stage (ages 1-3) focuses on bowel and bladder control. Fixation at this stage can lead to personality traits related to control, orderliness, or messiness. A failure to maintain a clean residence, as described, aligns with 'anal-expulsive' traits, indicating a fixation on this stage where the individual might be messy or rebellious.

Question 19: A patient arrives at the emergency room very disturbed. They're acting irrationally and insisting they need medication or "terrible things" will happen if they don't. What is the most likely status of the dopamine system in this patient?

• There are decreased dopamine receptors on the post-synaptic membrane. (Correct answer)
• There is seizure-like activity in the dopamine brain areas.
• There is decreased dopamine in the synaptic cleft.
• There is cell death in the areas with high dopamine cells.

Correct answer: There are decreased dopamine receptors on the post-synaptic membrane.

The patient's irrational behavior and distress are highly suggestive of psychosis, often associated with disorders like schizophrenia. These conditions are linked to excessive dopamine activity in certain brain regions (hyperdopaminergia). While acute psychosis involves increased dopamine signaling, the brain can undergo compensatory changes, such as a downregulation or decrease in post-synaptic dopamine receptors, in response to chronic overstimulation to try and reduce the overall impact of high dopamine levels.

Question 20: One day, while doing treatments in his clinic, a dentist is summoned to the front desk to resolve a conflict between one of his patients and the receptionist. The patient is a middle-aged businessman who is upset and making a disturbance because he was told he would have to visit a dental hygienist rather than a dentist. The patient screams angrily that he earns far too much money to be treated by an inexperienced colleague. The clerk informs the dentist that the patient was 40 minutes late for his appointment and that the hygienist was now the only available appointment time.The patient retaliates by saying that his time is more valuable than everyone else's. What type of personality problem do you think this patient has?

• Narcissistic (Correct answer)
• Histrionic
• Obsessive-compulsive
• Paranoid

Correct answer: Narcissistic

The patient's behavior—demanding special treatment, expressing grandiosity about his income, believing his time is more valuable, and reacting with anger when his perceived status is challenged—are classic indicators of Narcissistic Personality Disorder. This disorder is characterized by a pervasive pattern of grandiosity, a need for admiration, and a lack of empathy.

Question 21: What is the first stage of cognitive development, according to Piaget?

• Preoperational
• Concrete Operational
• Sensorimotor (Correct answer)
• Formal Operational

Correct answer: Sensorimotor

Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development outlines four stages. The sensorimotor stage is the first, occurring from birth to approximately two years of age. During this stage, infants learn about the world primarily through their senses and motor actions, developing object permanence and basic understanding of cause and effect.

Question 22: According to the James-Lange Emotion Theory __.

• physiological changes have no influence on emotions
• emotions cause physiological reactions
• physiological changes influence emotions (Correct answer)
• a person’s thoughts about physiological reactions determine emotions

Correct answer: physiological changes influence emotions

The James-Lange theory of emotion proposes that our experience of emotion is a result of our physiological responses to stimuli. It suggests that we first perceive a stimulus, then experience a physiological reaction (e.g., increased heart rate), and *then* interpret these bodily changes as a specific emotion. Therefore, physiological changes directly influence emotions.

Question 23: Which stimulus has the most impact on circadian rhythms?

• light (Correct answer)
• pressure
• temperature
• pain

Correct answer: light

Light is the most significant environmental cue, or zeitgeber, that influences and synchronizes our circadian rhythms. Specialized photoreceptors in the retina detect light and send signals to the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) in the hypothalamus, which acts as the body's master clock, regulating sleep-wake cycles and other biological processes.

Question 24: What part of the brain is in charge of speech?

• hypothalamus
• cerebellum
• Broca’s Area (Correct answer)
• occipital lobe

Correct answer: Broca’s Area

Broca's Area, located in the frontal lobe of the dominant cerebral hemisphere (typically the left), is a critical brain region primarily responsible for the production of speech. Damage to this area can lead to Broca's aphasia, characterized by difficulty forming words and speaking fluently, while comprehension remains relatively intact.

Question 25: Which memory category would explicit memory fall into?

• long-term memory (Correct answer)
• procedural memory
• sensory memory
• short-term memory

Correct answer: long-term memory

Explicit memory, also known as declarative memory, refers to memories that are consciously recalled, such as facts, events, and concepts. This type of memory is a component of long-term memory, which has a vast capacity and can store information for extended periods, ranging from minutes to a lifetime.