MBLEx Client Assessment and Treatment Questions and Answers — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A client presents with an exaggerated posterior curvature of the thoracic spine, often referred to as 'hunchback.' During the visual assessment, what is the correct term for this postural deviation?
- Scoliosis
- Lordosis
- Kyphosis (Correct answer)
- Anterior Pelvic Tilt
Correct answer: Kyphosis
Kyphosis is the medical term for an excessive outward or posterior curvature of the spine, particularly in the thoracic region, resulting in a 'hunchback' appearance. Lordosis is an inward curve, scoliosis is a lateral curve, and anterior pelvic tilt relates to the position of the pelvis.
Question 2: While palpating a client's upper trapezius, a therapist identifies a taut, palpable band of muscle that elicits a local twitch response and referred pain when compressed. What has the therapist most likely located?
- An active trigger point (Correct answer)
- A swollen lymph node
- A fibrous adhesion
- A bone spur
Correct answer: An active trigger point
The key characteristics described—a hyperirritable spot within a taut band, a local twitch response upon stimulation, and a pattern of referred pain—are the classic signs of an active myofascial trigger point. Lymph nodes do not produce a twitch response, adhesions are restrictions in fascia without these specific neurological signs, and a bone spur is a bony growth.
Question 3: A massage therapist asks a client to flex their own shoulder as far as they can without any assistance from the therapist. What type of range of motion is being assessed?
- Passive Range of Motion (PROM)
- Active Assisted Range of Motion (AAROM)
- Resisted Range of Motion (RROM)
- Active Range of Motion (AROM) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Active Range of Motion (AROM)
Active Range of Motion (AROM) involves the client performing a joint movement using their own muscle power without any external assistance. PROM is when the therapist moves the joint, AAROM is when the client moves with the therapist's help, and RROM is when the client moves against an applied resistance.
Question 4: A client's intake form indicates they are in the chronic stage of recovery from a hamstring muscle strain. Which of the following treatment goals is most appropriate for the massage therapist to prioritize?
- Applying ice packs to reduce acute inflammation.
- Using cross-fiber friction to reduce adhesions and improve tissue alignment. (Correct answer)
- Completely immobilizing the affected leg to allow for rest.
- Focusing on relaxation techniques while avoiding the affected leg entirely.
Correct answer: Using cross-fiber friction to reduce adhesions and improve tissue alignment.
In the chronic stage of healing, after acute inflammation has subsided, the focus shifts to remodeling tissue and breaking down scar tissue (adhesions) to restore mobility and function. Cross-fiber friction is specifically designed for this purpose. Ice and immobilization are appropriate for the acute stage.
Question 5: When using a standard 0-10 numeric pain rating scale during a client assessment, what does a rating of '0' represent?
- The worst pain imaginable
- Moderate, distracting pain
- Mild, annoying pain
- No pain (Correct answer)
Correct answer: No pain
On a numeric pain rating scale (NPRS), 0 consistently represents the complete absence of pain. The scale typically ranges from 0 (no pain) to 10 (the worst pain imaginable), allowing clients to quantify their subjective pain experience.
Question 6: During an assessment, a client with chronic tension headaches reports that the pain often originates at the base of their skull. Palpation reveals significant hypertonicity in the suboccipital muscles. Which treatment approach would most directly address these findings?
- Performing vigorous tapotement on the temporal region.
- Focusing primarily on effleurage of the lower legs to promote general circulation.
- Applying deep gliding and sustained compression to the suboccipitals. (Correct answer)
- Suggesting the client stretch their quadriceps and hamstrings daily.
Correct answer: Applying deep gliding and sustained compression to the suboccipitals.
The assessment findings specifically identify hypertonic suboccipital muscles as a likely source of the client's tension headaches. Therefore, the most logical and direct treatment approach is to apply techniques like deep gliding and compression to these muscles to release tension and alleviate the trigger points. The other options are not relevant to the specific assessment findings.
MBLEx Client Assessment and Treatment Questions and Answers
A client presents with an exaggerated posterior curvature of the thoracic spine, often referred to as 'hunchback.' During the visual assessment, what is the correct term for this postural deviation?