ISTQB - International Software Testing Qualifications Board Test Management and Planning Questions and Answers — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A test manager is creating the master test plan for a large project. According to the IEEE 829 standard, which of the following items should be included in the 'Risks and Contingencies' section of the test plan?
- A list of all defects found in previous projects.
- Detailed test procedures for high-risk features.
- Potential issues that could jeopardize the test project, and the planned responses. (Correct answer)
- The final pass/fail criteria for system testing.
Correct answer: Potential issues that could jeopardize the test project, and the planned responses.
The 'Risks and Contingencies' section of a test plan is used to identify potential problems that might negatively impact the project (project risks) and to outline the mitigation and contingency plans to address them if they occur. The other options belong in different parts of the test documentation set.
Question 2: During test execution, monitoring reveals that the test team is significantly behind schedule due to a test environment that is frequently unavailable. This is impacting the project timeline. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the test control process?
- Analyzing the problem and reporting the deviation and its impact to stakeholders. (Correct answer)
- Immediately extending the test schedule by the amount of time lost.
- Canceling all remaining tests that depend on the unstable environment.
- Asking the development team to stop delivering new builds until the environment is fixed.
Correct answer: Analyzing the problem and reporting the deviation and its impact to stakeholders.
Test control involves taking corrective actions when testing deviates from the plan. The first step is to analyze the deviation, understand its impact, and communicate this status clearly to all relevant stakeholders. The other options are potential actions that might be decided upon *after* this initial communication and analysis has occurred.
Question 3: A test manager is determining the test approach for a safety-critical avionics system. The approach involves analyzing the requirements and design specifications to identify potential failure modes and basing the testing effort on the likelihood and impact of these failures. This is a prime example of which type of test strategy?
- Reactive strategy
- Methodical strategy
- Consultative strategy
- Analytical strategy (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Analytical strategy
An analytical test strategy, such as risk-based testing, uses a systematic analysis of a factor, like risks or requirements, to guide the testing effort. A reactive strategy would wait for the software to be delivered, a methodical strategy would follow a standard checklist, and a consultative strategy would rely on stakeholder input.
Question 4: Which of the following scenarios describes a PRODUCT risk, as opposed to a project risk?
- The lead test automation engineer may resign before the framework is complete.
- The software might not be compatible with a newly released operating system. (Correct answer)
- The delivery of the test hardware is delayed by the vendor.
- The project budget for testing resources is cut by 20%.
Correct answer: The software might not be compatible with a newly released operating system.
A product risk is a risk directly related to the quality of the software itself—that it might fail to meet user, customer, or stakeholder expectations. Incompatibility is a quality issue. The other options are project risks because they threaten the schedule, resources, or staffing of the *project*, not the quality of the product directly.
Question 5: A team is using an expert-based test estimation technique where team members provide individual estimates. These estimates are then discussed as a group, and the process is repeated until the estimates converge and a consensus is reached. Which technique is being described?
- Function Point Analysis
- Metrics-based Extrapolation
- Wideband Delphi (Correct answer)
- Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
Correct answer: Wideband Delphi
Wideband Delphi is an expert-based estimation technique that involves a group of experts providing anonymous estimates, followed by rounds of discussion and re-estimation until a consensus is achieved. Function Point Analysis and Extrapolation are metrics-based, while WBS is a technique for breaking down work, not estimating it directly.
Question 6: What is the primary objective of a defect triage meeting?
- To re-test all the defects that have been marked as 'fixed' by the developers.
- To review, prioritize, and assign responsibility for newly reported defects. (Correct answer)
- To perform root cause analysis on every defect found during the test cycle.
- To write the final test summary report for the stakeholders.
Correct answer: To review, prioritize, and assign responsibility for newly reported defects.
The main purpose of defect triage is to manage the flow of incoming defect reports by evaluating them, assigning a priority and severity, and deciding who should be responsible for the next steps (e.g., fixing, deferring, or closing).
ISTQB - International Software Testing Qualifications Board Test Management and Planning Questions and Answers
A test manager is creating the master test plan for a large project.
According to the IEEE 829 standard, which of the following items should be included in the 'Risks and Contingencies' section of the test plan?