Free NPTE-TE Exam Question and Answers — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Trina went to physical therapy complaining of right low back pain that had been bothering her for the previous two weeks, which had spread to her posterior right leg and down to her knee. Her therapist saw a diminished patellar reflex on the side that was injured. When she lays down to attempt to fall asleep at night and when she bends forward, her agony is at its worst. Which of the following fits the facts above as a reasonable diagnostic theory?
- Vascular claudication
- Lumbar stenosis
- Spinal neoplasm
- Lumbar radiculopathy (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Lumbar radiculopathy
Trina's symptoms, including low back pain radiating down the posterior leg to the knee, a diminished patellar reflex (L3/L4 nerve root), and pain worsened by lying down or bending forward, are classic indicators of lumbar radiculopathy. This condition typically involves compression or irritation of a spinal nerve root, often due to a disc herniation, which can be exacerbated by positions that increase intradiscal pressure. Other options like vascular claudication or lumbar stenosis present with different symptom patterns and aggravating/alleviating factors.
Question 2: Daniel is exercising his lower extremities D2 flexion and extension patterns as advised by his physical therapist to enhance his ability to kick a soccer ball with better motor control. Which hip motion grouping contributes to the lower extremity D2 flexion pattern?
- Hip flexion, abduction, and internal rotation (Correct answer)
- Hip flexion, adduction, and external rotation
- Hip extension, abduction, and internal rotation
- Hip extension, adduction, and external rotation
Correct answer: Hip flexion, abduction, and internal rotation
The D2 flexion pattern for the lower extremity is a diagonal movement pattern used in proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF) techniques. At the hip joint, this specific pattern involves a combination of flexion, abduction, and internal rotation. This coordinated movement helps to strengthen and improve motor control for complex activities like kicking a soccer ball.
Question 3: Andrew is conducting an examination on a patient undergoing rehabilitation following a catastrophic brain injury. Cranial nerve VI is dysfunctional, according to Andrew's evaluation. Which of the following complaints would you anticipate witnessing in this patient's situation?
- Difficulty swallowing
- Difficulty moving the affected eyes(s) laterally (Correct answer)
- Difficulty with the sense of smell
- Difficulty biting and chewing
Correct answer: Difficulty moving the affected eyes(s) laterally
Cranial nerve VI is the Abducens nerve, which is solely responsible for innervating the lateral rectus muscle of the eye. This muscle's function is to abduct the eye, meaning to move it laterally away from the midline. Therefore, dysfunction of the Abducens nerve would directly result in difficulty moving the affected eye(s) laterally.
Question 4: When executing a barbell overhead press at the gym, Marie felt thoracic pain, so she made an appointment for a physical therapy evaluation. The therapist for Marie decides to start therapy with a midthoracic grade 5 manipulation after thoroughly examining Marie and clearing out any potential warning signs. Which of the following precludes the use of a grade 5 thoracic manipulation?
- Excess adipose tissue in the trunk
- Thoracic pain with segmental mobility testing
- Pain with maximal inhalation
- Rheumatoid arthritis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Rheumatoid arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis is a systemic inflammatory disease that can lead to joint instability, ligamentous laxity, and bone erosion, particularly in the spine. Performing a Grade 5 thoracic manipulation, which is a high-velocity, low-amplitude thrust, on a spine compromised by rheumatoid arthritis significantly increases the risk of serious injury, such as fracture or dislocation. Therefore, it is a absolute contraindication for this type of intervention.
Question 5: When Julia walks into a patient room at an outpatient physical therapy facility, she discovers an unconscious patient who has collapsed on the floor. She calls a staff member right away and instructs them to dial 911 and get the automated external defibrillator (AED). Julia examines the patient, who has a pulse but is not breathing normally. She turns the patient over on their back. What is the following best action in the chain of survival decision-making?
- Wait for the AED to arrive and apply it to the patient
- Begin rescue breaths, delivering one every 6 seconds (Correct answer)
- Monitor the patient's breathing and pulse until the emergency responders arrive
- Immediately begin chest compressions at a rate of 100-120/minute
Correct answer: Begin rescue breaths, delivering one every 6 seconds
The patient has a pulse but is not breathing normally, indicating respiratory arrest rather than cardiac arrest. In this scenario, the immediate priority is to provide rescue breaths to oxygenate the patient's blood. According to current American Heart Association (AHA) guidelines for an adult with a pulse but not breathing normally, rescue breaths should be delivered at a rate of one breath every 5-6 seconds (approximately 10-12 breaths per minute).
Question 6: In order to treat Karen's stress urine incontinence, she is undergoing physical therapy, and one of the objectives of her therapist is to teach her how to contract her pelvic floor musculature. Which of the following uses of biofeedback for pelvic floor retraining is well-established?
- A pressure biofeedback unit placed under the lumbar spine in supine position
- Electrodermography
- Rehabilitative ultrasound imaging (Correct answer)
- Verbal and manual tactile cues
Correct answer: Rehabilitative ultrasound imaging
Rehabilitative ultrasound imaging (RUSI) provides real-time visual feedback of muscle contractions, allowing both the therapist and patient to observe the activation and relaxation of deep muscles, including the pelvic floor. This direct visualization helps patients learn to correctly isolate and contract their pelvic floor musculature, making it a well-established and effective biofeedback method for retraining in conditions like stress urinary incontinence. Other options like electrodermography or pressure biofeedback units are less specific for directly visualizing pelvic floor muscle activity.
Question 7: Elizabeth visits physical therapy to get her vertigo assessed and addressed. She has experienced sporadic, severe episodes of nausea, imbalance issues, and dizziness. To assist her control her symptoms, her primary care physician gave her a medicine to use whenever she has dizziness. Which of the following drugs is frequently used for dizziness?
- Furosemide
- Metformin
- Zofran
- Meclizine (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Meclizine
Meclizine is an antihistamine commonly prescribed to alleviate symptoms of dizziness, vertigo, and nausea, particularly those associated with vestibular disorders. It works by acting on the central nervous system to reduce the excitability of the vestibular system. The other listed drugs are used for different conditions: Furosemide (diuretic), Metformin (diabetes), and Zofran (nausea/vomiting).
Free NPTE-TE Exam Question and Answers
Trina went to physical therapy complaining of right low back pain that had been bothering her for the previous two weeks, which had spread to her posterior right leg and down to her knee.
Her therapist saw a diminished patellar reflex on the side that was injured.
When she lays down to attempt to fall asleep at night and when she bends forward, her agony is at its worst.
Which of the following fits the facts above as a reasonable diagnostic theory?