Free Certified Professional Coder Trivia Questions and Answers — Questions and Answers

Question 1: To check for cancer, a tissue sample will be taken from a lesion on a 45-year-old lady. A full-thickness tissue sample was taken by utilizing a sharp blade to remove the tissue samples. A simple closure was done. Which CPT code must be documented by the provider?

11104 x 2
11106 and 11107
11106 (Correct answer)
11106 x 2

Correct answer: 11106

CPT code 11106 is for 'Biopsy of skin, subcutaneous tissue, and/or mucous membrane (including simple closure), punch, percutaneous; single lesion.' The scenario describes taking a full-thickness tissue sample from a single lesion using a sharp blade (implying an incisional or punch biopsy) with simple closure. This code accurately represents the procedure for the first lesion biopsied via this technique.

Question 2: A patient with lumbar spinal stenosis undergoes an arthrodesis operation. Three lumbar interspaces were treated during the surgery. Which ICD-10 and CPT codes should the doctor report?

22630, 22630, and M48.06
22600 and M48.062
22630, 22632, 22632, and M48.06 (Correct answer)
22600, 22614, 22614 and M48.06

Correct answer: 22630, 22632, 22632, and M48.06

CPT code 22630 describes 'Arthrodesis, posterior interbody technique, lumbar region (e.g., PLIF); single interspace.' For additional interspaces, add-on code 22632 is used: 'Arthrodesis, posterior interbody technique, lumbar region (e.g., PLIF); each additional interspace.' Since three lumbar interspaces were treated, 22630 is reported for the first, and 22632 is reported twice for the two additional interspaces. M48.06 is the correct ICD-10-CM code for lumbar spinal stenosis.

Question 3: A 2-year-old girl who was born with a cleft palate will have surgery to make her nose look better. She should have a full rhinoplasty, according to her doctor, to raise the tip of her nose. The doctor also made a significant septal repair. What CPT code needs to be reported by the doctor?

30420 (Correct answer)
30630
30400 and 30420
30160

Correct answer: 30420

CPT code 30420 is for 'Rhinoplasty, secondary; with major septal repair.' The patient's history of a cleft palate indicates that this is a secondary procedure to correct a congenital deformity, not an initial rhinoplasty. The description explicitly mentions a 'full rhinoplasty' to raise the tip of the nose and a 'significant septal repair,' which aligns perfectly with the comprehensive nature of code 30420.

Question 4: A doctor decides to fix a paraoesophageal hernia. Abdominal pain, gastrointestinal bleeding, and reflux were all present in the patient. A surgical procedure was suggested to avoid a strangulated hernia. The doctor moved the stomach and other protrusions back into place during the procedure. In order to avoid developing another hernia, the surgeon used mesh materials. Which CPT code is required for reporting?

43283
43281 and 49568
43333 and 49568
43282 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 43282

CPT code 43282 specifically describes the laparoscopic repair of a paraesophageal hernia, which includes fundoplasty (a procedure to reinforce the lower esophageal sphincter) and allows for the use of mesh. The clinical scenario details a laparoscopic procedure to fix a paraesophageal hernia, move the stomach back into place, and use mesh, perfectly aligning with the description of code 43282. Other options are incorrect as they describe different procedures or require separate coding for mesh, which is included in 43282.

Question 5: A 38-year-old male patient was given the diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome by the doctor. Since the patient was in pain, he or she decided to have surgery. The doctor performed an ulnar nerve release procedure in which he separated the Osborne's ligament, widening the tunnel and relieving pressure on the ulnar nerve. How should a CPT code be reported?

64834
64836 (Correct answer)
64831
None of the above

Correct answer: 64836

The patient was diagnosed with cubital tunnel syndrome, which involves compression of the ulnar nerve at the elbow. The doctor performed an ulnar nerve release, separating Osborne's ligament to widen the tunnel and relieve pressure. CPT code 64836 specifically describes 'Neuroplasty, ulnar nerve at elbow; decompression,' which accurately reflects the surgical procedure performed to decompress the ulnar nerve at the elbow for cubital tunnel syndrome.

Question 6: What time does anesthesia start?

Once the supervising physician signs over the patient’s care to the anesthesiologist
After the induction of anesthesia is complete
During the pre-operative exam before entering the OR
When the anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient for the induction of anesthesia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: When the anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient for the induction of anesthesia

Anesthesia time officially begins when the anesthesiologist or qualified anesthesia personnel (QANP) starts preparing the patient for the induction of anesthesia. This includes tasks such as performing the pre-anesthesia assessment, placing monitoring devices, and administering pre-operative medications. The time concludes when the anesthesiologist is no longer in personal attendance, and the patient is safely transferred to post-anesthesia care.

Question 7: A patient's face impacted the steering wheel during a motor vehicle collision. He was bruised all over, and his face was swollen. The doctor thought there might be a maxilla or zygomatic-malar fracture. An oblique anterior-posterior projection by the radiologist clearly displayed the facial complex. Additionally, lateral and anterior-posterior views were captured. Which CPT code is appropriate for the doctor to use?

70150 (Correct answer)
70250
70100
70120

Correct answer: 70150

The patient presented with facial trauma and suspected maxilla or zygomatic-malar fractures, prompting a comprehensive radiological examination. The radiologist performed oblique anterior-posterior, lateral, and anterior-posterior views of the facial complex. CPT code 70150 is appropriate as it describes a 'Radiologic examination, facial bones; complete, minimum 3 views,' which accurately covers the multiple views taken to thoroughly assess the facial bones for fractures.

Question 8: Salpingo-Oophorectomy is the word used to describe.

The surgical sampling or removal of a fertilized egg
Cutting into a fertilized egg for surgical purposes
The removal of the fallopian tubes and ovaries (Correct answer)
Cutting into the fallopian tubes and ovaries for surgical purposes

Correct answer: The removal of the fallopian tubes and ovaries

Salpingo-oophorectomy is a medical term derived from Greek roots. 'Salpingo' refers to the fallopian tube, and 'oophor' refers to the ovary. The suffix '-ectomy' means surgical removal. Therefore, a salpingo-oophorectomy is the surgical procedure involving the removal of both the fallopian tubes and the ovaries.

Question 9: Which of the following is a method of preserving a bodily part using cryopreservation?

Heat
Saturation
Chemicals
Freezing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Freezing

Cryopreservation is a process used to preserve biological materials, such as cells, tissues, or organs, by cooling them to very low temperatures. This method effectively halts biological activity and prevents degradation, allowing for long-term storage. Therefore, freezing is the fundamental method employed in cryopreservation.

Question 10: The radius is defined as

Inner bone located in the lower leg
Outer bone located in the forearm (Correct answer)
Outer bone located in the lower leg
Inner bone located in the forearm

Correct answer: Outer bone located in the forearm

The radius is one of the two long bones located in the forearm, extending from the elbow to the wrist. When the arm is in the anatomical position (palms facing forward), the radius is situated on the lateral side of the forearm, which is the side closer to the thumb. This makes it the 'outer' bone of the forearm.

Question 11: Which organ system does the spleen belong to?

Hemic and Lymphatic (Correct answer)
Nervous
Endocrine
Digestive

Correct answer: Hemic and Lymphatic

The spleen is a vital organ that plays a crucial role in both the hemic (blood) and lymphatic systems. It filters blood, removes old or damaged red blood cells, stores platelets, and is involved in immune responses by producing lymphocytes. These functions directly relate to the composition and circulation of blood and the body's immune defense, placing it within the Hemic and Lymphatic system.

Question 12: Courtney was seated in the kitchen of her apartment. Neosar is administered to a Hodgkin's disease patient as part of his chemotherapy treatment plan. He receives an intravenous injection of 100 mg once every week. What HCPCS code needs to be applied?

J7502
J8999
J9100
J9070 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: J9070

The patient is receiving Neosar, which is the brand name for Cyclophosphamide, a chemotherapy drug. The dosage specified is 100 mg intravenously. HCPCS code J9070 specifically identifies 'Cyclophosphamide, 100 mg,' making it the correct code to report the administration of this particular drug and dosage for chemotherapy treatment.

Question 13: The following service(s) are included in wound exploration codes:

Exploration, including enlargement, removal of foreign bodies, repair
Exploration, including enlargement, repair, and necessary grafting
Exploration, including enlargement, debridement, removal of foreign bodies, minor vessel ligation, and repair (Correct answer)
Exploration and repair

Correct answer: Exploration, including enlargement, debridement, removal of foreign bodies, minor vessel ligation, and repair

CPT guidelines for wound exploration codes (e.g., 20100-20103) specify a comprehensive set of services included in these codes. These services encompass exploration of the wound, enlargement of the wound for better visualization, debridement of devitalized tissue, removal of foreign bodies, ligation of minor bleeding vessels, and primary repair of the wound. This ensures that all necessary steps for a thorough wound exploration and initial management are covered.

Question 14: When an ABN is required,

Before the service or procedure is provided to the patient (Correct answer)
Once the insurance company has denied payment
Once the denied claim has been appealed at the highest level
After services are rendered, but before the claim is filed

Correct answer: Before the service or procedure is provided to the patient

An Advance Beneficiary Notice of Noncoverage (ABN) is a mandatory notice that healthcare providers must give to Medicare beneficiaries. This notice informs the patient that Medicare may not pay for a specific service or item. It is crucial that the ABN is provided to the patient *before* the service or procedure is rendered, allowing them to make an informed decision about receiving the service and accepting financial responsibility if Medicare denies coverage.

Question 15: The word that means "the expansion of":

Tocolysis
Dilation (Correct answer)
Manipulation
Curettage

Correct answer: Dilation

Dilation is a medical term that refers to the act or process of expanding or widening a body opening, vessel, or organ. For example, cervical dilation during childbirth or pupil dilation in an eye exam both involve the expansion of a structure. This term directly corresponds to the meaning 'the expansion of'.

Question 16: The small intestine's final part is the:

Duodeum
Ileum (Correct answer)
Tenue
Jejunum

Correct answer: Ileum

The small intestine is a crucial part of the digestive system, responsible for most nutrient absorption. It is anatomically divided into three distinct sections: the duodenum, which is the first and shortest part; the jejunum, which is the middle section; and the ileum, which is the final and longest section, connecting to the large intestine at the ileocecal valve.

Free Certified Professional Coder Trivia Questions and Answers

To check for cancer, a tissue sample will be taken from a lesion on a 45-year-old lady.
A full-thickness tissue sample was taken by utilizing a sharp blade to remove the tissue samples.
A simple closure was done.
Which CPT code must be documented by the provider?