Free Certified Professional Coder Practice Questions and Answers — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A woman who is 89 years old and has been smoking every day since 1950. Due to her hypertension, congestive heart failure, and chronic shortness of breath (SOB), she has been brought to the emergency room (CHF). She has acute diastolic CHF, according to her prior cardiology records. <br> <br> Which codes from ICD-10 should be applied?
- I50.31, F17.200, I11.0
- I11.0, I50.31, F17.210 (Correct answer)
- I10, I50.9, F17.200
- I11.0, I50.9
Correct answer: I11.0, I50.31, F17.210
The correct codes are I11.0 for hypertensive heart disease with heart failure, I50.31 for acute diastolic congestive heart failure, and F17.210 for nicotine dependence on cigarettes, severe, uncomplicated. This sequence accurately captures the patient's primary conditions, specifying the type of heart failure and her long-standing smoking habit. The other options either miss key diagnoses or use less specific codes.
Question 2: In order to treat bacterial pneumonia, a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is brought to the hospital. <br> <br> Which codes from ICD-10 should be applied?
- J44.10, J15.9
- J44.9, J18.9
- J44.0, J15.9 (Correct answer)
- J15.9, J44.0
Correct answer: J44.0, J15.9
The correct codes are J44.0 for COPD with acute lower respiratory infection and J15.9 for unspecified bacterial pneumonia. J44.0 is used when COPD is complicated by an acute lower respiratory infection like pneumonia, establishing the link between the two conditions. J15.9 specifies the type of pneumonia as bacterial, completing the diagnostic picture.
Question 3: A man, 34 years old, is taken to the hospital with sepsis. A Covid-19 viral test was performed on him, and the findings were positive. His vaccination status is included in his medical file. While being treated in the hospital, he started showing signs of septic shock. <br> <br> What ICD-10 codes should be used in this case?
- A41.89, R65.20
- A41.89, R65.21
- R65.20, U07.1, A41.9
- U07.1, A41.89, R65.21 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: U07.1, A41.89, R65.21
The correct codes are U07.1 for confirmed COVID-19, A41.89 for other specified sepsis, and R65.21 for severe sepsis with septic shock. U07.1 is the primary code for confirmed COVID-19. Sepsis (A41.89) is a complication, and the development of septic shock (R65.21) indicates a severe form, making this the most comprehensive and accurate coding sequence.
Question 4: A woman comes into the emergency room with SOB. She may be experiencing respiratory failure due to hypoxia and hypercapnia. Acute respiratory distress syndrome is the diagnosis made by the doctor (ARDS). What is the accurate diagnostic for this scenario?
- J80, J96.01, J96.02
- J80 (Correct answer)
- J90
- J96.01, J96.01
Correct answer: J80
The diagnosis given is Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS). J80 is the specific ICD-10 code for ARDS. ARDS is a severe form of respiratory failure, and its diagnosis encompasses the symptoms of hypoxia and hypercapnia, making J80 the most precise and complete code for this scenario.
Question 5: Should the case be coded where the line begins (the insertion) or where the line ends up when coding the installation of a catheter in the right main artery?
- Ending
- Middle
- Neither
- Beginning (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Beginning
In medical coding for vascular access procedures, the insertion site (where the line begins) is typically the primary factor in determining the correct code. The complexity and anatomical considerations of the insertion point often dictate the procedure's difficulty and resource utilization. Therefore, coding begins at the point of insertion.
Question 6: A patient was attacked on the sidewalk outside a convenience shop. No one witnessed what happened, but the victim had several broken bones and bruises. The patient reported complete darkness before feeling a forceful impact. The patient has suffered many fractures, including the left zygoma, left humerus, left tib/fib, and left cuboid, as seen on x-rays. <br> <br> Where can you find the zygoma?
- Face (Correct answer)
- Ear
- arm
- Foot
Correct answer: Face
The zygoma is commonly known as the cheekbone. It is a paired bone that forms the prominence of the cheek and part of the orbit (eye socket). Therefore, it is located in the face, making 'Face' the correct answer.
Question 7: The patient visits the clinic because of throat pain. It has a bright red throat. No nasal congestion or fever is present. To rule out strep throat, the doctor orders a throat swab. All of the tests came out negative. <br> <br> Which ICD-10 code should be used?
- R07.0 (Correct answer)
- J02.0, B95.5
- J02.9
- J02.0
Correct answer: R07.0
The patient presents with throat pain, and strep throat has been ruled out by a negative swab. Since no definitive diagnosis for the cause of the throat pain was found, the appropriate code is for the symptom itself. R07.0, 'Pain in throat,' accurately reflects the patient's primary complaint without a confirmed underlying condition.
Question 8: When the esophageal lining becomes inflamed, this condition develops. An infection or inflammation of the esophagus is normally responsible for this condition. What does this medical term describe?
- Barrett’s Esophagus
- Esophageal Varices
- Esophagitis (Correct answer)
- Mallory-Weiss Tear
Correct answer: Esophagitis
The term 'esophagitis' is derived from 'esophagus' (the tube connecting the throat to the stomach) and the suffix '-itis,' which means inflammation. Therefore, esophagitis literally means inflammation of the esophagus, precisely matching the description provided in the question.
Question 9: The tympanic membrane is also known as ______.
- ear drum (Correct answer)
- taste bud
- stirrup
- inner ear
Correct answer: ear drum
The tympanic membrane is the medical term for the eardrum. It is a thin, cone-shaped membrane that separates the external ear from the middle ear and vibrates in response to sound waves, playing a crucial role in hearing.
Question 10: When does time begin and stop for the purposes of reporting anesthesia time?
- When the physician begins the procedure; when the physician ends the procedure.
- When the anesthesiologist begins prepping the patient; when the patient leaves the hospital.
- When the anesthesiologist begins prepping the patient; when the anesthesiologist is no longer in personal post-operative attendance. (Correct answer)
- When the anesthesiologist administers the anesthetic agent; when the patient leaves the operating table.
Correct answer: When the anesthesiologist begins prepping the patient; when the anesthesiologist is no longer in personal post-operative attendance.
Anesthesia time begins when the anesthesiologist starts preparing the patient for the procedure, including pre-anesthesia evaluation and monitoring setup. It ends when the anesthesiologist is no longer in personal attendance, meaning they have transferred care or the patient is stable for recovery room staff. This definition encompasses the entire period of the anesthesiologist's direct involvement.
Question 11: What does the ending "-megaly" mean in hepatomegaly?
- Inflammation of, as in enlargement of the liver
- Softening of, as in softening of the liver
- Pain in, as in liver pain
- Enlargement of, as in enlargement of the liver (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Enlargement of, as in enlargement of the liver
The suffix '-megaly' is a common medical term derived from Greek, meaning 'enlargement' or 'greatness.' In the term 'hepatomegaly,' 'hepato-' refers to the liver, so the combined term literally means 'enlargement of the liver.' This suffix is consistently used across medical terminology to denote organ enlargement, such as splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) or cardiomegaly (enlarged heart).
Question 12: A _______Â is a technique that involves passing an endoscope via the oropharynx and vocal cords, then extending it beyond the trachea into the bronchus. This technique can be used for either diagnosis or treatment.
- Tracheoscopy
- Bronchoscopy (Correct answer)
- Oropharyngoscopy
- Laryngoscopy
Correct answer: Bronchoscopy
A bronchoscopy is a medical procedure involving the insertion of an endoscope through the oropharynx and vocal cords, extending it beyond the trachea into the bronchus. This technique allows for direct visualization of the airways for diagnostic purposes, such as biopsies, or therapeutic interventions. The description explicitly states the endoscope extends 'beyond the trachea into the bronchus,' which precisely defines a bronchoscopy.
Question 13: Chlamydia testing requires taking a culture from the patient. <br> In the laboratory, what is the right code?
- 87110 (Correct answer)
- 87118
- 87109
- 87116
Correct answer: 87110
CPT code 87110 specifically describes 'Culture, chlamydia, any method.' This code is used for laboratory testing to detect Chlamydia, which involves taking a culture from the patient and processing it in the lab. The scenario clearly states that Chlamydia testing requires taking a culture, making 87110 the correct and most specific code for this service.
Question 14: Planning and discussing therapies based on the Adaptive Behavior Protocol with a group of seven patients. <br> <br> Which CPT code should be used?
- 97156
- 97153
- 97157
- 97154 (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 97154
CPT code 97154 is designated for 'Group adaptive behavior treatment by protocol, administered by technician or aide under the direction of a physician or other qualified healthcare professional, face-to-face with patient(s); each 15 minutes.' The scenario describes planning and discussing therapies based on an Adaptive Behavior Protocol with a group of seven patients, which perfectly aligns with the definition of this code for group-based adaptive behavior treatment.
Question 15: Codes for these are found in the Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) manual:
- Only supplies that you cannot find in the CPT manual.
- All services performed in the office, except for procedures.
- Supplies, services, and procedures that are not found in the CPT manual. (Correct answer)
- Procedures that are also found in the CPT coding manual.
Correct answer: Supplies, services, and procedures that are not found in the CPT manual.
The Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) manual, specifically Level II codes, is designed to report services, supplies, drugs, and equipment not covered by CPT codes. While CPT covers most physician services and procedures, HCPCS fills the gap for items like durable medical equipment, ambulance services, and certain drugs. Therefore, HCPCS codes are used for items and services that are not adequately described or found within the CPT manual.
Question 16: An anesthesiologist administered sedation to a patient before she had dental work. This is a surgery that is often done without sedation, but the patient's severe fear required the use of anesthetic. <br> <br> Which modifier best describes the procedure?
- -26
- -23 (Correct answer)
- -22
- -47
Correct answer: -23
Modifier -23, 'Unusual Anesthesia,' is appended to an anesthesia code when a procedure that typically does not require general anesthesia (or sedation) must be performed under general anesthesia due to unusual circumstances. In this case, the patient's severe fear necessitated sedation for a dental procedure usually done without it. This unusual circumstance makes modifier -23 the appropriate choice to indicate the unique nature of the anesthesia administration.
Free Certified Professional Coder Practice Questions and Answers
A woman who is 89 years old and has been smoking every day since 1950.
Due to her hypertension, congestive heart failure, and chronic shortness of breath (SOB), she has been brought to the emergency room (CHF).
She has acute diastolic CHF, according to her prior cardiology records.
Which codes from ICD-10 should be applied?