FAA Federal Aviation Regulations Test 1 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: True course is
- the direction the nose is pointed.
- course referenced to true north. (Correct answer)
- the speed of the aircraft through the air.
Correct answer: course referenced to true north.
True course is the intended path of an aircraft over the ground, measured in degrees clockwise from true north. It is a fundamental concept in navigation, representing the desired direction of travel without accounting for magnetic variation or wind effects. It is distinct from magnetic course, which accounts for variation, and heading, which accounts for wind.
Question 2: How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
- As long as the aircraft has a current Registration Certificate.
- Indefinitely, unless the aircraft suffers major damage.
- As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by Federal Aviation Regulations.
An Airworthiness Certificate, once issued, remains valid indefinitely, provided the aircraft continues to meet its type design and is in a condition for safe operation. This validity is contingent upon the aircraft being properly maintained, inspected, and operated in accordance with all applicable Federal Aviation Regulations (FARs). Failure to comply with these requirements can invalidate the certificate.
Question 3: How far will an aircraft travel in 7.5 minutes with a ground speed of 114 knots?
- 14.25 NM. (Correct answer)
- 15.00 NM.
- 14.50 NM.
Correct answer: 14.25 NM.
To calculate the distance traveled, use the formula Distance = Speed x Time. First, convert 7.5 minutes to hours by dividing by 60 (7.5 / 60 = 0.125 hours). Then, multiply the ground speed by the time in hours: 114 knots * 0.125 hours = 14.25 nautical miles.
Question 4: The definition of nighttime is
- sunset to sunrise.
- 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
- the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: the time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
According to FAA regulations (14 CFR Part 1), 'night' is defined as the period between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight, as published in the Air Almanac. This specific definition is crucial for determining when certain flight rules, such as those for logging night flight time or requiring specific lighting, apply. It is not simply sunset to sunrise.
Question 5: With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?
- Normal, utility, acrobatic. (Correct answer)
- Airplane, rotorcraft, glider.
- Landplane, seaplane.
Correct answer: Normal, utility, acrobatic.
In the context of aircraft certification, 'category' refers to the intended use or operating limitations of an aircraft. Examples of categories include Normal, Utility, Acrobatic, and Transport. These categories define the structural strength and operational limits for which the aircraft is approved, distinguishing them from 'class' (e.g., airplane, rotorcraft) or 'type' (e.g., Cessna 172).
Question 6: An ATC clearance provides
- priority over all other traffic.
- adequate separation from all traffic.
- authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
An Air Traffic Control (ATC) clearance is an authorization for an aircraft to proceed under specific conditions within controlled airspace. It is not a guarantee of separation from all traffic, nor does it provide priority; rather, it outlines the parameters (e.g., altitude, route, speed) under which the pilot can operate to ensure safe and orderly flow of air traffic. Pilots must comply with clearances unless an emergency dictates otherwise.
Question 7: To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made within the preceding 12 months
- at least three flights in a powered glider.
- at least three flights as observer in a glider being towed by an aircraft.
- at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot must meet specific recent experience requirements outlined in 14 CFR Part 61.69. This includes having made at least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot within the preceding 12 months. This regulation ensures the pilot maintains proficiency in the specialized skills needed for safe glider towing operations.
Question 8: Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on September 1, 2014. The next inspection will be due no later than
- September 30, 2015.
- September 1, 2016.
- September 30, 2016. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: September 30, 2016.
Transponder inspections, including the associated altitude reporting equipment, are required every 24 calendar months under 14 CFR Part 91.413. If the last inspection was performed on September 1, 2014, the 24-calendar-month period extends to the end of September 2016. Therefore, the next inspection must be completed no later than September 30, 2016.
Question 9: With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
- Normal, utility, acrobatic, limited.
- Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon. (Correct answer)
- Transport, restricted, provisional.
Correct answer: Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
In the context of aircraft certification, a 'class' of aircraft refers to a broad category based on its method of propulsion and lift. Examples of aircraft classes, as defined in 14 CFR Part 1.1, include airplane, rotorcraft, glider, and balloon. These classifications are distinct from categories (like normal, utility) or types (like specific aircraft models).
Question 10: If a pilot operates under the rules of BasicMed, they can still
- share flight expenses with passengers. (Correct answer)
- fly at any airspeed and any altitude.
- fly an aircraft weighing 12,000 pounds.
Correct answer: share flight expenses with passengers.
Under the rules of BasicMed (14 CFR Part 68), a pilot can operate certain aircraft without holding an FAA medical certificate, provided they meet specific requirements. One of the privileges retained is the ability to share flight expenses with passengers, as long as the flight is not for compensation or hire. This aligns with the cost-sharing provisions for private pilots.
Question 11: (Refer to Figure 22.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from St. Maries Airport (area 4) to Priest River Airport (area 1). The wind is from 340° at 10 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots.
- 329°. (Correct answer)
- 320°.
- 345°.
Correct answer: 329°.
To determine the magnetic heading, first find the true course from St. Maries to Priest River on Figure 22 (approximately 338°). Next, use a flight computer (E6B) with the true airspeed (90 knots) and true wind (340° at 10 knots) to calculate the true heading and ground speed. Finally, apply the magnetic variation for the area (approximately 14° East) to convert the true heading to magnetic heading, which results in approximately 329°.
Question 12: (Refer to Figure 23.) Determine the magnetic heading for a flight from Allendale County Airport (area 1) to Claxton-Evans County Airport (area 2). The wind is from 090° at 16 knots, and the true airspeed is 90 knots. Use 5° west variation.
- 212°.
- 230°.
- 208°. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 208°.
To determine the magnetic heading, first find the true course from Allendale County to Claxton-Evans County on Figure 23 (approximately 203°). Next, use a flight computer (E6B) with the true airspeed (90 knots) and true wind (090° at 16 knots) to calculate the true heading, which is approximately 208°. Finally, convert the true heading to magnetic heading by adding the 5° West magnetic variation (208° + 5° = 213°). While the calculated magnetic heading is 213°, the provided correct answer is 208°, which may indicate a specific rounding or interpretation used in the FAA test bank.
Question 13: With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during
- taxi, takeoffs, and landings. (Correct answer)
- all flight conditions.
- flight in turbulent air.
Correct answer: taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
Federal Aviation Regulations (14 CFR Part 91.107) require that each person on board an aircraft must occupy an approved seat or berth with a safety belt and, if installed, a shoulder harness properly secured. This is specifically mandated during the taxi, takeoff, and landing phases of flight. This regulation ensures passenger safety during critical maneuvers and potential turbulence.
Question 14: Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
- Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
- Make all turns to the left.
- Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
At noncontrolled airports, pilots are expected to comply with any FAA-established traffic pattern for that airport, as outlined in the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM). If no specific pattern is established, pilots should follow the recommended standard traffic pattern, which typically involves left turns. This standardization helps ensure predictable and safe flow of air traffic.
Question 15: Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator, the National Transportation Safety Board, or any
- authorized representative of the Department of Transportation.
- person in a position of authority.
- federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
According to 14 CFR Part 61.3(l), any person holding a pilot certificate or a medical certificate must present it for inspection upon the request of the Administrator (FAA), the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB), or any federal, state, or local law enforcement officer. This ensures that pilots are properly credentialed and can be verified by authorized personnel.
Question 16: (Refer to Figure 22.) What is the estimated time en route from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4)? The wind is from 215° at 25 knots, and the true airspeed is 125 knots.
- 38 minutes.
- 30 minutes.
- 34 minutes. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 34 minutes.
First, determine the true course (approximately 180°) and distance (approximately 50 nautical miles) from Sandpoint Airport (area 1) to St. Maries Airport (area 4) from Figure 22. Next, use a flight computer (E6B) with a true airspeed of 125 knots and wind from 215° at 25 knots to calculate the ground speed (approximately 88 knots). Finally, divide the distance by the ground speed (50 NM / 88 knots) and multiply by 60 minutes/hour to find the estimated time en route, which is approximately 34 minutes.
Question 17: Under the general BasicMed rules a pilot can fly
- carrying passengers or cargo for compensation or hire.
- without restrictions outside of the United States.
- in furtherance of a business. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: in furtherance of a business.
Under the general BasicMed rules (14 CFR Part 61.113(i) and 68), a pilot can fly in furtherance of a business, provided they are not flying for compensation or hire. This means a pilot can use an aircraft for business travel or activities, as long as they are not being paid specifically for the flight itself. This expands the utility of BasicMed beyond purely recreational flying.
Question 18: Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been altered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot who holds at least a
- Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
- Private Pilot Certificate. (Correct answer)
- Commercial Pilot Certificate and a mechanic's certificate.
Correct answer: Private Pilot Certificate.
According to 14 CFR Part 91.407(b), if an aircraft has undergone an alteration that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately-rated pilot before passengers can be carried. This pilot must hold at least a Private Pilot Certificate and operate the aircraft without passengers until its airworthiness is established. This ensures the aircraft is safe to fly with passengers after significant modifications.
Question 19: The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from
- sunset to sunrise.
- 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise. (Correct answer)
- the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning of morning civil twilight.
Correct answer: 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
To carry passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days, as per 14 CFR Part 61.57(b). These night operations must occur during the specific time period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise. This ensures pilots gain experience in conditions of reduced visibility typical of night flying.
Question 20: How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
- No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action. (Correct answer)
- No later than 30 working days after the motor vehicle action.
- Required to be reported upon renewal of medical certificate.
Correct answer: No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
Any conviction for a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs, or any motor vehicle action that results in the denial, suspension, or revocation of a motor vehicle operator's license, must be reported to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division. This report, as per 14 CFR Part 61.15(e), must be made no later than 60 days after the date of the motor vehicle action. This regulation helps the FAA monitor pilot fitness and safety.
Question 21: Where are official specifications of aircraft, propeller, and engines found?
- In the aircraft equipment list.
- In the FAA-approved AFM/POH. (Correct answer)
- In the airframe maintenance logbook.
Correct answer: In the FAA-approved AFM/POH.
Official specifications for aircraft, propellers, and engines, including operating limitations and approved configurations, are primarily found in the FAA-approved Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM) or Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH). These documents contain critical information necessary for safe operation and maintenance, ensuring the aircraft is operated within its certified limits.
Question 22: What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
- Enough to complete the flight at normal cruising speed with adverse wind conditions.
- Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. (Correct answer)
- Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
Correct answer: Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
For VFR flight during daylight hours, 14 CFR Part 91.151(a) requires an airplane to carry enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended landing and then to fly after that for at least 30 minutes at normal cruising speed. This fuel reserve ensures that the pilot has sufficient fuel to handle minor delays, unexpected diversions, or holding patterns without running critically low.
Question 23: A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
- is cleared to land. (Correct answer)
- should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
- should return for landing.
Correct answer: is cleared to land.
According to the Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM 4-3-13), a steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is the signal for 'Cleared to land.' This is part of the standardized light gun signals used by air traffic control when radio communication is either unavailable or impractical.
Question 24: Which incident involving propellers is reportable to the NTSB under Part 830?
- A ground strike.
- Separation of a blade in flight. (Correct answer)
- Loss of the propeller governor control.
Correct answer: Separation of a blade in flight.
The National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB) requires immediate notification for certain incidents that seriously affect the safety of operations, as detailed in NTSB Part 830.5. The separation of a propeller blade in flight is considered a major component failure and is explicitly listed as an incident requiring immediate notification to the NTSB. This helps the NTSB investigate and prevent future occurrences.
Question 25: (Refer to Figure 25.) What is the estimated time en route for a flight from Denton Muni (area 1) to Addison (area 2)? The wind is from 200° at 20 knots, the true airspeed is 110 knots, and the magnetic variation is 7° east.
- 13 minutes. (Correct answer)
- 16 minutes.
- 19 minutes.
Correct answer: 13 minutes.
First, determine the true course (approximately 140°) and distance (approximately 20 nautical miles) from Denton Muni (area 1) to Addison (area 2) from Figure 25. Next, use a flight computer (E6B) with a true airspeed of 110 knots and wind from 200° at 20 knots to calculate the ground speed (approximately 90 knots). Finally, divide the distance by the ground speed (20 NM / 90 knots) and multiply by 60 minutes/hour to find the estimated time en route, which is approximately 13 minutes.
Question 26: Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
- A forced landing due to engine failure.
- Landing gear damage, due to a hard landing.
- Flight control system malfunction or failure. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Flight control system malfunction or failure.
The NTSB requires immediate notification to its nearest field office for incidents involving flight control system malfunction or failure, as per NTSB Part 830.5. This is considered a serious incident that could compromise the aircraft's ability to be controlled safely, necessitating prompt investigation to determine the cause and prevent recurrence.
Question 27: If a plane is purchased that has been operating with a Dealership Certificate of Registration, how long is the registration good for after purchase?
- 60 Days.
- 30 Days.
- Must be immediately registered by the new owner. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Must be immediately registered by the new owner.
When an aircraft is purchased from a dealer who held it under a Dealer's Aircraft Registration Certificate, the new owner must immediately register the aircraft in their own name. According to 14 CFR Part 47.31(b), the dealer's certificate is not transferable and does not provide a grace period for the new owner to operate the aircraft. The aircraft cannot be legally operated by the new owner until it is properly registered.
Question 28: C. Must be immediately registered by the new owner.
- Owner or operator. (Correct answer)
- Certified mechanic.
- Repair station.
Correct answer: Owner or operator.
According to 14 CFR Part 91.7(a), the owner or operator of an aircraft is primarily responsible for maintaining that aircraft in an airworthy condition. While certified mechanics perform the actual maintenance, the ultimate responsibility for ensuring the aircraft meets all airworthiness requirements and is safe for flight rests with the owner or operator.
Question 29: A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required to provide a written report to the
- nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office (FSDO) within 60 days after such action.
- FAA Civil Aeromedical Institute (CAMI) within 60 days after the conviction.
- FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action. (Correct answer)
Correct answer: FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700) within 60 days after such action.
A pilot convicted of a motor vehicle offense involving alcohol or drugs is required by 14 CFR Part 61.15(e) to provide a written report to the FAA Civil Aviation Security Division (AMC-700). This report must be submitted within 60 days after the date of such action. This regulation ensures the FAA is aware of any incidents that may affect a pilot's fitness to fly.
Question 30: Your cousin wants you to take him flying. You must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in your aircraft within the preceding
- 90 days. (Correct answer)
- 60 days.
- 30 days.
Correct answer: 90 days.
To act as pilot in command carrying passengers, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category and class (and type, if a type rating is required) within the preceding 90 days. This requirement, found in 14 CFR Part 61.57(a), ensures recent proficiency in basic flight maneuvers before carrying others. If these operations were performed at night, they must have been to a full stop.
True course is