DDS Practice 3 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A patient presents with a palatal torus that is interfering with denture fabrication. The surgeon plans a torus removal. Which nerve block is most important for anesthesia of the palatal mucosa overlying the torus?
- Inferior alveolar nerve block
- Greater palatine nerve block
- Nasopalatine nerve block
- Both greater palatine and nasopalatine nerve blocks (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Both greater palatine and nasopalatine nerve blocks
The palatal mucosa is innervated by both the greater palatine nerve (posterior) and the nasopalatine nerve (anterior), so both blocks are required for complete anesthesia.
Question 2: A patient's panoramic radiograph shows a well-defined, corticated radiolucency at the apex of a mandibular premolar with a history of prior endodontic treatment. The tooth tests non-vital. This is most consistent with:
- Periapical cemento-osseous dysplasia
- Periapical abscess
- Periapical granuloma or cyst (Correct answer)
- Traumatic bone cyst
Correct answer: Periapical granuloma or cyst
A well-defined corticated periapical radiolucency on a non-vital, treated tooth is most consistent with a periapical granuloma or cyst.
Question 3: Which of the following is the MOST important factor in determining the long-term success of an implant?
- Brand of implant system used
- Adequate bone quality and quantity at the implant site (Correct answer)
- Use of platform switching
- Crown-to-implant ratio
Correct answer: Adequate bone quality and quantity at the implant site
Adequate bone quality and quantity at the implant site is the most critical factor for osseointegration and long-term implant success.
Question 4: A 6-year-old patient has a pulpally involved primary mandibular molar. The roots show no pathological resorption and the permanent successor is not at risk. Which treatment is indicated?
- Direct pulp cap
- Pulpotomy with formocresol or MTA (Correct answer)
- Pulpectomy with ZOE
- Extraction
Correct answer: Pulpotomy with formocresol or MTA
Pulpotomy is the treatment of choice for primary molars with carious pulp exposure when the radicular pulp is healthy and roots are intact.
Question 5: When fabricating a removable partial denture (RPD), which component prevents unwanted movement of the RPD away from the tissue?
- Rest
- Minor connector
- Reciprocal clasp
- Retentive clasp arm (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Retentive clasp arm
The retentive clasp arm engages an undercut on the abutment tooth to prevent dislodgment of the RPD away from the tissues.
Question 6: A patient complains of severe, spontaneous, lancinating pain along the right cheek that lasts seconds and is triggered by eating. There is no neurologic deficit. This presentation is most consistent with:
- Atypical facial pain
- Trigeminal neuralgia (Correct answer)
- Cluster headache
- Temporomandibular disorder
Correct answer: Trigeminal neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia is characterized by sudden, severe, unilateral lancinating facial pain often triggered by routine activities like eating or touching the face.
Question 7: Which suturing technique is best for closing a wound with primary intention in a narrow interdental space after periodontal flap surgery?
- Continuous sling suture (Correct answer)
- Interrupted suture
- Mattress suture
- Figure-eight suture
Correct answer: Continuous sling suture
A continuous sling suture anchors the flap around the teeth, providing excellent approximation in the interdental areas after periodontal surgery.
DDS Practice 3
A patient presents with a palatal torus that is interfering with denture fabrication.
The surgeon plans a torus removal.
Which nerve block is most important for anesthesia of the palatal mucosa overlying the torus?