CSC Speed and Agility Training 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which agility quality distinguishes 'reactive agility' from 'pre-planned agility'?
- The use of cones vs. ladders
- The presence of a stimulus requiring a decision before changing direction (Correct answer)
- The speed at which the drill is performed
- Whether the movement is lateral or forward
Correct answer: The presence of a stimulus requiring a decision before changing direction
Reactive agility requires a perceptual-cognitive decision triggered by an external stimulus (such as a defender's movement), making it more sport-specific than pre-planned direction changes.
Question 2: What is the role of plyometric training in speed and agility development?
- Primarily develops maximal strength
- Improves the stretch-shortening cycle efficiency and rate of force development (Correct answer)
- Only benefits jumping athletes
- Replaces the need for sprint drills
Correct answer: Improves the stretch-shortening cycle efficiency and rate of force development
Plyometric training enhances the neuromuscular system's ability to rapidly store and release elastic energy, improving both rate of force development and SSC efficiency critical for speed and agility.
Question 3: When programming speed development, what is the recommended work-to-rest ratio for maximum velocity sprints to ensure full neural recovery?
- 1:1
- 1:2
- 1:6 to 1:10 (Correct answer)
- 1:3 to 1:4
Correct answer: 1:6 to 1:10
Maximum velocity sprint work requires 1:6 to 1:10 work-to-rest ratios to allow complete restoration of the phosphocreatine system and avoid accumulation of fatigue that degrades sprint mechanics.
Question 4: Which of the following describes 'hip lock' or 'quad dominance' as a concern in change-of-direction mechanics?
- An over-reliance on quadriceps and insufficient glute/hip activation leading to valgus collapse risk (Correct answer)
- Using hips to drive forward too aggressively
- Locking the hip joint during a lateral shuffle
- Excessive hip flexion angle at initial contact
Correct answer: An over-reliance on quadriceps and insufficient glute/hip activation leading to valgus collapse risk
Quad dominance refers to over-reliance on the quadriceps with inadequate posterior chain (glute/hamstring) activation, increasing valgus collapse risk and ACL injury likelihood during direction changes.
Question 5: What is the ideal shin angle characteristic of an effective acceleration start position?
- Vertical (perpendicular to ground)
- Slight forward lean (45–55 degrees from horizontal) (Correct answer)
- Slight backward lean
- No shin angle matters — only arm drive
Correct answer: Slight forward lean (45–55 degrees from horizontal)
A forward shin angle of approximately 45–55 degrees from horizontal during acceleration allows the athlete to apply force behind the center of mass, maximizing horizontal propulsion.
Question 6: Why is the 10-yard split time often used rather than 40-yard dash time for evaluating first-step quickness in team sport athletes?
- It is easier to measure accurately
- It isolates the acceleration phase most relevant to team sport movements (Correct answer)
- 40-yard dash is too dangerous
- It evaluates aerobic capacity better
Correct answer: It isolates the acceleration phase most relevant to team sport movements
The 10-yard split isolates the acceleration phase, which most closely mirrors the repeated short-burst movements in team sports where athletes rarely reach top speed.
Which agility quality distinguishes 'reactive agility' from 'pre-planned agility'?