CPC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CPC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which of the following best describes 'unbundling' in medical coding? → Reporting multiple component codes when a comprehensive code should be used
2. Which HCPCS Level II modifier is appended to indicate that a service was ordered by a clinical nurse specialist? → AN
3. A burn wound requiring debridement covers 5% TBSA. Which CPT code is reported for initial debridement of a burn involving 5% TBSA? → 16020
4. A patient undergoes paring or cutting of four separate corns on the foot. Which CPT code is reported? → 11056
5. Which type of biopsy involves removing a core of tissue using a hollow needle? → Core needle biopsy
6. Which CPT code range covers Surgery of the Musculoskeletal System? → 20000–29999
7. Which anesthesia code range covers procedures on the thorax (chest wall and shoulder girdle)? → 00400–00474
8. Which statute imposes civil monetary penalties on any person who knowingly presents a false or fraudulent claim to a federal health care program? → False Claims Act
9. Which modifier is appended to a staged skin graft procedure performed in the same operative session as an initial wound debridement? → Modifier 58
10. Which section of ICD-10-CM contains codes for factors influencing health status (such as immunizations or family history)? → Chapter 21
11. Under the OPPS (Outpatient Prospective Payment System), which coding system is primarily used for reimbursement? → CPT and HCPCS Level II
12. When a physician performs an annual wellness visit and also addresses a new problem requiring additional work, how should this be coded? → The preventive medicine code plus the appropriate E/M code with modifier -25
13. Controlled hypotension induced during anesthesia to reduce surgical bleeding is reported with which qualifying circumstance? → 99135
14. A neonatologist provides initial care to a normal newborn in the hospital. Which code family is most appropriate? → 99460–99462
15. In the CPT manual, what does the triangle symbol (▲) preceding a code indicate? → A revised code description
16. Which HCPCS Level II code category covers durable medical equipment (DME)? → E codes
17. When an anesthesiologist supervises more than four concurrent CRNA cases, which modifier applies to the anesthesiologist's claim? → AD
18. Should the location of the line's beginning (the insertion) or its end (the ________) be coded when a catheter is placed in the right middle artery? → Beginning
19. What is the primary purpose of HCPCS Level II codes? → To report products, supplies, and services not included in CPT®.
20. What does a panel code in laboratory coding represent? → A group of tests commonly performed together, reported as one code
21. Which HCPCS Level II code category covers durable medical equipment (DME)? → E codes
22. What does the global surgical package typically include? → Pre-op, intra-op, and post-op care
23. Which official guideline governs ICD-10-CM coding and must be followed by all coders? → ICD-10-CM Official Guidelines for Coding and Reporting
24. A CRNA providing anesthesia without any physician oversight uses which modifier? → QZ
25. When contrast material is used during a CT scan, how does this affect code selection? → A separate code is selected that specifies 'with contrast'
26. What is the purpose of the NCCI (National Correct Coding Initiative) edits? → To prevent improper payment of procedure code pairs that should not be billed together
27. For anesthesia coding purposes, the total anesthesia time begins when? → When the anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient for induction
28. What time does anesthesia start? → When the anesthesiologist begins preparing the patient for the induction of anesthesia
29. To divert or create an artificial passage is what this term means: → Shunt
30. Codes for these are found in the Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System (HCPCS) manual: → Supplies, services, and procedures that are not found in the CPT manual.