CPA Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CPA facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A pesticide label states 'PHI: 14 days.' What does this mean for a vegetable grower? → Do not harvest the crop within 14 days of the last application
2. Which statement about pesticide mixing order when using multiple products (including herbicides, insecticides, and adjuvants) is CORRECT? → A jar test should be conducted before mixing unfamiliar product combinations
3. What is the main purpose of a 'spreader-sticker' adjuvant when added to a pesticide spray mix? → To help the pesticide spread across and adhere to leaf surfaces
4. The presence of frass (insect excrement) shaped like tiny pellets found in a window frame most likely indicates: → Drywood termite activity
5. How does crop sanitation support IPM goals? → It removes crop debris that pests use for overwintering or reproduction
6. Floricane-fruiting raspberries showing wilting canes that bend into a characteristic 'shepherd's crook' shape are most likely damaged by: → Raspberry cane borer larvae girdling the cane
7. What is the primary purpose of an Integrated Pest Management (IPM) approach in relation to environmental protection? → To minimize pesticide use by combining biological, cultural, and chemical controls
8. A label says 'Not for use on golf courses or sod farms.' This type of restriction is an example of which label element? → Use site restriction
9. What distinguishes a Class A (acute oral LD50 ≤ 50 mg/kg) pesticide toxicity rating from a Class C rating? → Class A is the most acutely toxic and requires DANGER-POISON labeling
10. When is pesticide runoff into surface water most likely to occur? → Shortly after application during heavy rainfall on saturated or compacted soils
11. What is the primary purpose of a sticker adjuvant? → To improve adhesion of the pesticide to the target surface
12. Under FIFRA, which entity is primarily responsible for registering pesticide products before they can be sold or distributed in the United States? → The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
13. Chronic pesticide toxicity refers to adverse health effects that result from: → Repeated or prolonged exposures over an extended period of time
14. Which rodent control method uses a snap trap baited with peanut butter placed perpendicular to a wall? → Mechanical snap trapping exploiting thigmotaxis
15. Which of the following is an example of a pheromone trap used in pest monitoring? → Delta trap with a sex-attractant lure for moths
16. An applicator is using a backpack sprayer with a fan nozzle. To increase coverage width without changing nozzles, the applicator should: → Raise the nozzle higher above the target
17. After handling pesticides, in what order should you remove contaminated PPE? → Remove gloves first, then wash hands, then remove other PPE
18. What is the correct procedure if pesticide splashes into an applicator's eye while wearing face protection that did not fully prevent exposure? → Flush the eye continuously with clean water for 15-20 minutes and seek medical attention
19. Which of the following best describes a 'buffering agent' used as a pesticide adjuvant? → A substance that adjusts and stabilizes the pH of the spray solution
20. Which of the following best describes the 'economic injury level' (EIL) in IPM? → The lowest pest population that will cause economic damage equal to the cost of control
21. Which of the following is a symptom consistent with acute organophosphate pesticide poisoning? → Excessive salivation, pinpoint pupils, and muscle twitching
22. Which document must an applicator consult to determine the required pre-harvest interval (PHI) before treating a food crop? → The pesticide product label
23. Organophosphate and carbamate pesticides primarily pose environmental concern because they: → Are highly toxic to birds and mammals through acetylcholinesterase inhibition
24. The 're-entry interval' (REI) listed on a pesticide label specifies: → The minimum time workers must stay out of treated areas after application
25. Which pesticide use strategy is MOST consistent with IPM principles? → Using selective pesticides only when monitoring indicates thresholds have been exceeded
26. A pesticide formulated as an 'ultra-low volume (ULV)' concentrate is intended to be applied: → Undiluted or with very little dilution in very small volumes
27. Which of the following is the most critical first step in developing an effective and safe pest management program? → Accurately identifying the pest.
28. The Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA) of 1996 amended both FIFRA and which other federal law? → The Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FFDCA)
29. Which of the following soil types is MOST likely to allow rapid downward movement (leaching) of pesticides? → Sandy soil with low organic matter
30. An applicator notices a pesticide formulation separates into layers when stored. This is most likely a sign that: → The emulsion has broken down and the product may be compromised