COT - Certified Ophthalmic Technician Ophthalmic Pharmacology Questions and Answers — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A patient is prescribed a prostaglandin analog for the treatment of glaucoma. Which of the following is a common cosmetic side effect the technician should explain to the patient?
- Corneal thinning
- Permanent change in iris color and increased eyelash growth (Correct answer)
- Tingling in hands and feet
- A bad taste in the mouth
Correct answer: Permanent change in iris color and increased eyelash growth
Prostaglandin analogs, such as latanoprost, are known to cause cosmetic side effects including a permanent darkening of the iris color (especially in hazel or green eyes) and increased length, thickness, and number of eyelashes.
Question 2: Which class of ophthalmic drugs works by primarily decreasing the production of aqueous humor to lower intraocular pressure?
- Miotics
- Prostaglandin analogs
- Beta-blockers (Correct answer)
- Mydriatics
Correct answer: Beta-blockers
Beta-blockers, such as timolol, are a first-line treatment for glaucoma and function by blocking beta receptors in the ciliary body, which reduces the production of aqueous humor, thereby lowering intraocular pressure.
Question 3: A 6-year-old child is scheduled for a cycloplegic refraction. Which of the following agents is most appropriate for this purpose due to its strong cycloplegic effect and relatively fast onset and moderate duration?
- Proparacaine
- Phenylephrine
- Tropicamide
- Cyclopentolate (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cyclopentolate
Cyclopentolate is the drug of choice for cycloplegic refractions, especially in children, because it provides a strong cycloplegic effect (paralysis of accommodation) with a faster onset and shorter duration than atropine, allowing for an accurate measurement of refractive error.
Question 4: A patient undergoing a minor corneal procedure requires a topical anesthetic. If proparacaine 0.5% is instilled, approximately how long is the duration of its maximum anesthetic effect?
- Less than 1 minute
- 5 to 15 minutes (Correct answer)
- 30 to 45 minutes
- Over 60 minutes
Correct answer: 5 to 15 minutes
Topical anesthetics like proparacaine have a rapid onset. Clinical studies and reference materials indicate that the maximum anesthetic effect of a single drop of 0.5% proparacaine lasts for approximately 5 to 15 minutes, which is sufficient for short procedures like tonometry or foreign body removal.
Question 5: A patient with a history of diabetes and dry eye syndrome is prescribed a topical NSAID after cataract surgery. The technician should be aware that this patient is at an increased risk for which of the following complications?
- Corneal melting or perforation (Correct answer)
- Increased intraocular pressure
- Pupillary miosis
- Posterior synechiae
Correct answer: Corneal melting or perforation
Patients with pre-existing ocular surface diseases like dry eye or systemic conditions such as diabetes have compromised corneas. The use of topical NSAIDs in these patients can impede corneal healing and increase the risk of serious complications like corneal erosion, ulceration, and melting.
Question 6: Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors, such as dorzolamide, lower intraocular pressure by what mechanism of action?
- Increasing uveoscleral outflow
- Constricting the pupil to open the trabecular meshwork
- Reducing aqueous humor production (Correct answer)
- Blocking beta-adrenergic receptors in the ciliary body
Correct answer: Reducing aqueous humor production
Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (CAIs) work by suppressing the carbonic anhydrase enzyme in the ciliary body. This action reduces the formation of bicarbonate ions, which in turn decreases the production of aqueous humor and lowers intraocular pressure.
A patient is prescribed a prostaglandin analog for the treatment of glaucoma.
Which of the following is a common cosmetic side effect the technician should explain to the patient?