CMA Practice Test 2 — Questions and Answers

Question 1: If something is described as “dilated”, it will be…?

Trembling
Closed up
Expanded (Correct answer)
Collapsed

Correct answer: Expanded

In medical contexts, the term 'dilated' means expanded, widened, or enlarged. For example, a dilated pupil has become larger in diameter, and a dilated blood vessel has expanded its lumen. This term describes an increase in the size of an opening or structure, often in response to physiological or pathological stimuli.

Question 2: What is the primary function of melatonin?

To produce pigment for the skin.
To regulate the fight or flight response.
To regulate sleep/wake cycles. (Correct answer)
To stimulate protein synthesis.
Initiates sperm and egg maturation.

Correct answer: To regulate sleep/wake cycles.

Melatonin is a hormone primarily produced by the pineal gland in the brain. Its main function is to regulate the body's circadian rhythm, which controls the sleep-wake cycles. Melatonin levels typically rise in the evening, signaling the body to prepare for sleep, and decrease in the morning, promoting wakefulness.

Question 3: In Elizabeth Kübler-Ross’s theory, how many stages of grief are there for a patient diagnosed with terminal illness?

6
4
3
5 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5

Elizabeth Kübler-Ross's influential theory, outlined in her book 'On Death and Dying,' identifies five distinct stages of grief that individuals often experience when facing a terminal illness or significant loss. These stages are denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. This model provides a framework for understanding the complex emotional journey of patients and their families.

Question 4: The limbic system of the brain is responsible for the regulation of ___________?

Vision
Emotion (Correct answer)
Motor movement
Speech production
Metabolic processes

Correct answer: Emotion

The limbic system is a complex network of brain structures, including the amygdala, hippocampus, and hypothalamus, located deep within the brain. Its primary function is the regulation of emotions, motivation, memory, and certain autonomic functions. Specifically, the amygdala is crucial for processing fear and other strong emotional responses.

Question 5: If a condition has the suffix –penia, it means…?

Excessive
Hot
Damaged
Lacking (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Lacking

In medical terminology, the suffix '-penia' consistently indicates a deficiency or lack of something. For example, 'leukopenia' refers to a lower-than-normal white blood cell count, and 'osteopenia' denotes reduced bone density. Understanding this suffix is key to interpreting many medical conditions and terms.

Question 6: Which of these refers specifically to the study of ways of coping with death?

Psychotherapy
Thanatology (Correct answer)
Genealogy
Parapsychology

Correct answer: Thanatology

Thanatology is the scientific study of death and dying, encompassing the physical, psychological, social, ethical, and philosophical aspects of mortality. This field specifically investigates grief, bereavement, and the various ways individuals and societies cope with loss. It provides a comprehensive understanding of end-of-life experiences and support.

Question 7: Which of these applies to a person issued with a subpoena in a medical law case?

They must appear in court (Correct answer)
They may appear in court if they wish
They do not have to appear in court
They must stay away from the court

Correct answer: They must appear in court

A subpoena is a legal document that compels a person to appear in court or to produce specific documents or evidence. When issued, it is a mandatory order, and failure to comply can result in legal penalties, such as contempt of court. Therefore, a person issued with a subpoena in a medical law case is legally obligated to appear.

Question 8: At the beginning of each working day, you should check appointments…?

Against patient records
Against billing schedules
With each team member (Correct answer)
With the head of the practice

Correct answer: With each team member

At the beginning of each working day, it is crucial to check appointments with every team member to ensure smooth operations and prevent scheduling conflicts. This practice ensures that all necessary staff, resources, and equipment are prepared for the day's patients and procedures. Effective communication among team members is vital for efficient patient care and practice management.

Question 9: When a physician asks you to write up their record consultation, you are acting as a…?

Recordist
Clerk
Transcriptionist (Correct answer)
Secretary

Correct answer: Transcriptionist

When a physician dictates their record consultation and you convert their spoken words into a written document, you are acting as a transcriptionist. This role requires excellent listening skills, accuracy, and a strong understanding of medical terminology and grammar. Medical transcriptionists play a vital role in maintaining comprehensive and accurate patient records.

Question 10: A discharge summary report must include what?

The patient's financial account
The patient's final condition (Correct answer)
The patient's insurance details
The patient's next of kin

Correct answer: The patient's final condition

A discharge summary report is a critical document that provides a comprehensive overview of a patient's hospitalization and their status upon leaving the facility. It must include the patient's final condition, detailing their health status at discharge, any ongoing care instructions, and follow-up plans. This ensures continuity of care and informs subsequent healthcare providers.

Question 11: Who is generally responsible for making sure that medical personnel keep their professional status up-to-date?

The personnel themselves
The office administrator (Correct answer)
The state medical board
All of the above

Correct answer: The office administrator

While individual medical personnel are responsible for their own professional development, the office administrator often oversees and facilitates the process of keeping professional statuses up-to-date. This includes tracking licenses, certifications, and continuing education requirements, and reminding staff of deadlines. This role helps ensure the practice remains compliant with regulations and maintains high standards of care.

Question 12: Petty cash may NOT be used for which of these purposes?

Purchasing office sundries
Advances on staff salaries (Correct answer)
Paying excess delivery charges
Paying cab fares for staff on office business

Correct answer: Advances on staff salaries

Petty cash is a small fund used for minor, day-to-day expenses that do not warrant a full check or electronic payment, such as office supplies or small delivery fees. It should never be used for advances on staff salaries, as this is a significant financial transaction that requires proper payroll procedures and documentation. Using petty cash for salaries would violate accounting principles and create reconciliation issues.

Question 13: What does the Department of Health say that the chance of catching HIV from a single needlestick injury is?

3 in 1000 (Correct answer)
10 in 1000
100 in 1000
200 in 1000

Correct answer: 3 in 1000

According to the Department of Health and other public health organizations, the average risk of HIV transmission from a single percutaneous (needlestick) exposure to HIV-infected blood is approximately 0.3%. This translates to about 3 in 1000 exposures. This statistic underscores the importance of strict sharps safety protocols and post-exposure prophylaxis in healthcare settings.

Question 14: Used sharps should be disposed of in what?

Ordinary trash
Thick plastic bags
Any sealed container
FDA approved containers (Correct answer)

Correct answer: FDA approved containers

Used sharps, such as needles, scalpels, and lancets, pose a significant biohazard risk and must be disposed of safely to prevent injuries and the spread of infection. They should always be placed immediately into rigid, puncture-resistant, leak-proof, and clearly labeled containers that are specifically approved by the FDA for sharps disposal. These specialized containers ensure safe containment until proper disposal.

Question 15: Testing for which of these does not fall under the chain of custody procedures?

Paternity
Evidential DNA
Narcotic urinalysis
Pregnancy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pregnancy

Chain of custody procedures are critical for maintaining the integrity and legal defensibility of samples, particularly in forensic or legal contexts where results could have significant implications. These stringent protocols are essential for tests like paternity, evidential DNA, and narcotic urinalysis. Pregnancy tests, while medically important, typically do not require such rigorous legal documentation of sample handling.

Question 16: When placing electrodes for an ECG test, which of these is the only factor that does not require consideration?

Patient scars
Patient ethnicity (Correct answer)
Patient piercings
Patient stents

Correct answer: Patient ethnicity

When placing electrodes for an ECG test, several factors must be considered to ensure accurate readings, such as avoiding patient scars, piercings, and medical devices like stents that can interfere with electrical signals. However, patient ethnicity has no bearing on the physiological electrical activity of the heart or the proper placement of electrodes. The procedure is standardized regardless of ethnic background.

Question 17: If a drug is administered transdermally, it is received how?

Through the skin (Correct answer)
Through the mouth
By injection
By suppository

Correct answer: Through the skin

The term 'transdermal' literally means 'across the skin.' When a drug is administered transdermally, it is delivered through the skin, typically via a patch, cream, or gel, allowing the medication to be absorbed into the bloodstream. This method provides a controlled and sustained release of the drug, bypassing the digestive system and avoiding first-pass metabolism.

Question 18: What are drugs designed to cause vomiting called?

Diuretics
Anesthetics
Antibiotics
Emetics (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Emetics

Emetics are substances or drugs specifically designed to induce vomiting. They are sometimes used in emergency situations to remove ingested poisons from the stomach, although their use has become less common with advancements in other detoxification methods. The term 'emetic' comes from the Greek word 'emetikos,' meaning 'prone to vomiting.'

Question 19: Which of these is not part of the measurement of vital signs?

Temperature
Respiration
Pulse
Sweating (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sweating

Vital signs are fundamental physiological measurements that indicate the status of essential body functions. The four primary vital signs routinely measured are temperature, pulse (heart rate), respiration (breathing rate), and blood pressure. While sweating can be a symptom of various conditions, it is not considered one of the standard vital signs routinely measured by healthcare professionals.

Question 20: If a patient is displaying any abnormalities in their vital signs, how should this be reported?

On the patient chart
To the patient
To a physician (Correct answer)
Any of these

Correct answer: To a physician

If a patient displays any abnormalities in their vital signs, it is crucial to report this immediately to a physician. Abnormal vital signs can indicate a change in the patient's condition, a developing illness, or an adverse reaction, requiring prompt medical assessment and intervention. Reporting to the physician ensures appropriate and timely medical care.

CMA Practice Test 2

If something is described as “dilated”, it will be…?