CLEET Use of Force & Defensive Tactics 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Under the Graham v. Connor standard, which perspective is used to evaluate whether an officer's use of force was reasonable?
- A detached 20/20 hindsight review
- The perspective of a reasonable officer on the scene (Correct answer)
- The subjective intent of the officer
- The opinion of the supervising sergeant
Correct answer: The perspective of a reasonable officer on the scene
Graham v. Connor requires courts to judge reasonableness from the perspective of a reasonable officer on the scene, not with hindsight.
Question 2: An officer is involved in a struggle with a suspect who is attempting to disarm the officer. Which defensive tactic is most appropriate as a first response?
- Immediately draw and fire the service weapon
- Apply a weapon retention technique to secure the firearm (Correct answer)
- Back away and create distance
- Call for backup before taking any action
Correct answer: Apply a weapon retention technique to secure the firearm
Weapon retention techniques are specifically designed to prevent disarming and should be the immediate response when a suspect attempts to take an officer's firearm.
Question 3: Which factor does NOT directly factor into the Graham v. Connor three-part test for use of force?
- Severity of the crime
- Whether the suspect poses an immediate threat
- Whether the suspect is actively resisting
- The officer's years of experience (Correct answer)
Correct answer: The officer's years of experience
Graham v. Connor focuses on the severity of the crime, immediacy of threat, and active resistance or evasion — not the officer's tenure.
Question 4: When applying a prone restraint technique after a subject has been handcuffed, an officer's primary concern should be:
- Keeping the subject's arms extended
- Monitoring the subject for signs of positional asphyxia (Correct answer)
- Ensuring onlookers do not interfere
- Securing additional restraints immediately
Correct answer: Monitoring the subject for signs of positional asphyxia
Positional asphyxia is a documented risk when a handcuffed subject is held prone, making respiratory monitoring a critical safety concern.
Question 5: A suspect passively resists by going limp and refusing to walk. The appropriate level of force is typically:
- Deadly force, as noncompliance is a threat
- Pain compliance techniques or escort holds (Correct answer)
- No force whatsoever
- Immediate deployment of a Taser
Correct answer: Pain compliance techniques or escort holds
Passive resistance typically warrants pain compliance or escort holds, which are proportional responses that overcome noncompliance without escalating to higher force.
Question 6: The carotid restraint (vascular neck restraint) primarily works by:
- Compressing the trachea to restrict airflow
- Applying bilateral pressure to the carotid arteries to reduce blood flow to the brain (Correct answer)
- Hyperextending the cervical spine
- Compressing the vagus nerve to slow the heart
Correct answer: Applying bilateral pressure to the carotid arteries to reduce blood flow to the brain
The carotid restraint applies bilateral pressure to the carotid arteries, reducing blood flow to the brain and causing rapid incapacitation.
Question 7: After using force that results in injury, an officer's immediate post-incident responsibility includes:
- Leaving the scene to write the report
- Requesting medical attention for the injured party and notifying a supervisor (Correct answer)
- Confiscating all witness phones
- Declining to comment until legal counsel is present
Correct answer: Requesting medical attention for the injured party and notifying a supervisor
Officers are required to render or request medical aid for injured persons and notify a supervisor immediately after any use of force causing injury.
CLEET Use of Force & Defensive Tactics 2
Under the Graham v.
Connor standard, which perspective is used to evaluate whether an officer's use of force was reasonable?