CHMM Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CHMM facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. A groundwater plume of hexavalent chromium Cr(VI) can be treated in situ by injecting which reagent to reduce it to less mobile Cr(III)? → Ferrous sulfate or sodium bisulfite
2. When conducting a Hazard and Operability (HAZOP) study at a facility, the term 'deviation' refers to which of the following? → A departure from design intent identified by applying guide words to process parameters
3. Which of the following is a correct practice for storing compressed gas cylinders in a hazardous materials storage area? → Securing cylinders upright with chains or straps and separating by gas type
4. A confined space is classified as 'permit-required' under OSHA 29 CFR 1910.146 if it has which characteristic? → A space with a potential for a hazardous atmosphere or engulfment hazard
5. A company uses benzene as a solvent. Under OSHA 29 CFR 1910.1028, what is the action level for benzene that triggers medical surveillance? → 0.5 ppm as an 8-hour TWA
6. This sign requires eyewear. → FALSE
7. What is the minimum required initial HAZWOPER training for workers at uncontrolled hazardous waste cleanup sites who may be exposed to hazardous substances? → 40 hours
8. Under 49 CFR, a carrier must report a hazmat incident to PHMSA within how many hours if it results in a fatality? → Within 12 hours by telephone
9. CERCLA, commonly known as Superfund, authorizes the EPA to do which of the following? → Clean up uncontrolled hazardous waste sites and pursue cost recovery
10. A manufacturing facility eliminates the use of a chlorinated solvent by redesigning its cleaning process to use ultrasonic cleaning. This is best classified as: → Source reduction through process modification
11. Which metric is most directly useful for evaluating the effectiveness of a pollution prevention program? → Reduction in the quantity or toxicity of waste generated per unit of production over time
12. Under RCRA, which of the following is NOT a required element of a container storage area inspection for hazardous waste? → Testing the chemical composition of waste in each container
13. Under OSHA's respiratory protection standard (29 CFR 1910.134), before an employee is fit-tested for a tight-fitting respirator, what must be completed first? → A medical evaluation by a physician or licensed health professional
14. A facility must submit an RMP (Risk Management Plan) when it has a regulated substance above the threshold quantity. RMP is required under which law? → Clean Air Act Section 112(r)
15. Which RCRA standard applies to the treatment, storage, and disposal of hazardous waste at a permitted facility? → 40 CFR Part 264
16. A radioactive material's transport index (TI) is used to: → Control radiation exposure by limiting the number of packages that can be co-loaded
17. Under CERCLA, the National Contingency Plan (NCP) requires that remedies selected for Superfund sites meet what primary standard? → Applicable or relevant and appropriate requirements (ARARs)
18. During a remedial action, an unexpected encounter with buried drums containing unknown waste triggers what immediate requirement under OSHA 29 CFR 1910.120? → Stop work, evaluate hazards, and implement emergency procedures per the site safety plan
19. A 'limited quantity' exemption for hazmat shipments by air means the package: → Contains a reduced inner package quantity and is exempt from most labeling requirements
20. Pyrophoric materials must be stored under which conditions to prevent ignition? → Under an inert atmosphere or in sealed containers away from air and moisture
21. When responding to an unknown chemical spill, CAMEO (Computer-Aided Management of Emergency Operations) is primarily used to: → Identify chemicals, model dispersion, and plan emergency responses
22. Which act requires owners and operators of underground storage tanks (USTs) to meet specific technical and financial responsibility requirements? → RCRA Subtitle I
23. Noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL) is classified as which type of health effect? → Irreversible chronic effect
24. For a Class 1 explosive shipment, which document must the carrier have before accepting the shipment? → Explosives Compatibility Grouping document and the shipping paper
25. Which recovery consideration is most critical in the immediate aftermath of a hazmat spill involving water-reactive materials? → Ensuring no water is used in decontamination or cleanup operations
26. Under 40 CFR Part 264, what is the maximum time a large quantity generator (LQG) may accumulate hazardous waste on-site without a storage permit? → 90 days
27. Which characteristic of hazardous waste is defined by a flash point below 60°C (140°F)? → Ignitability
28. How should a hazard be handled to protect others? Pick one answer → Remove it immediately
29. Which factor most significantly affects the decision to shelter-in-place versus evacuate during a toxic chemical release? → Wind speed, direction, duration of release, and building integrity
30. The Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG) orange-bordered guides provide: → Initial isolation and protective action distances