CDC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield CDC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which ADA Principle of Ethics addresses the dentist's duty to keep professional knowledge and skills current? → Beneficence
2. What are the consequences of non-compliance with dental coding regulations? → Non-compliance can lead to fines, penalties, and legal consequences
3. A patient on chronic corticosteroid therapy requires oral surgery. Which perioperative management concern is MOST relevant? → Adrenal insufficiency
4. Which vasoconstrictive agent should be AVOIDED in local anesthetic solutions for patients taking non-selective beta-blockers? → Epinephrine
5. During an occlusal evaluation, the dental consultant notes that the patient's mandible shifts laterally upon full closure. This finding is called: → Centric relation-centric occlusion discrepancy with a lateral slide
6. Which CDT code is used for cone beam CT of one jaw? → D0364
7. When documenting local anesthesia in a clinical note, which information is most critical to include? → Type of anesthetic, quantity administered, and injection site
8. A dental consultant reviewing a malpractice-related record request should be aware that disclosing records in litigation contexts generally requires: → A valid patient authorization or a court order/subpoena
9. What should a CDC professional do upon discovering a colleague's unethical conduct? → Report through appropriate channels with proper documentation
10. Which CDT code added in recent CDT editions describes scaling in the presence of generalized moderate or severe gingival inflammation — full mouth? → D4346
11. A dental plan's internal policy conflicts with a state law regarding coverage of a specific procedure. Which takes precedence? → The state law takes precedence over the plan policy
12. Under HIPAA, which action constitutes a 'minimum necessary' violation when dental staff access patient records? → A receptionist accessing full clinical notes to confirm tomorrow's appointments
13. What is a records management audit in CDC? → Reviewing practices to ensure compliance with policies
14. What is the key clinical distinction between CDT codes D4341 and D4342? → D4341 covers four or more teeth per quadrant; D4342 covers one to three teeth per quadrant
15. What is a needs assessment in CDC Patient Assessment & Evaluation practice? → Identifying gaps between current conditions and desired outcomes
16. What CDT code covers the surgical removal of an erupted tooth requiring elevation of a mucoperiosteal flap? → D7210
17. A predetermination of benefits is submitted before treatment begins. What is the primary purpose of this process? → To obtain an estimate of covered benefits before incurring the cost of treatment
18. What does CDT code D0330 represent in dental radiographic coding? → Panoramic radiographic image
19. What is peer review in CDC Patient Assessment & Evaluation? → Quality evaluation by qualified colleagues for improvement
20. What are record retention policies in CDC practice? → Rules defining how long records must be kept and when destroyed
21. Which organization publishes and maintains the CDT code set? → American Dental Association (ADA)
22. What is the relationship between ICD-10 codes and CDT codes in dental billing? → ICD-10 codes are used for diagnosis, and CDT codes are used for procedures
23. What does CDT code D9910 represent? → Application of desensitizing medicament
24. Vestibuloplasty — ridge extension, secondary epithelialization — is reported with which CDT code? → D7350
25. Documentation of a patient's medical history update at each visit is critical because: → Changes in systemic health or medications can affect dental treatment decisions
26. Which element of a dental treatment plan note is most important for demonstrating clinical decision-making? → The diagnosis and clinical rationale linking findings to proposed treatment
27. What is the function of saliva in oral health? → To help in digestion and protect the teeth from acids
28. Which local anesthetic agent has the LONGEST duration of action for dental nerve blocks? → Bupivacaine 0.5%
29. In assessing a patient for dry mouth during a dental consultation, which objective finding is most diagnostic? → Inability to float a cracker without water and frothy saliva
30. CDT code D2391 refers to resin-based composite for the posterior tooth. What does the suffix '1' in the series indicate? → One surface