Question 1: What wind is forecast for STL at 9000 feet?

• 230° magnetic at 25 knots
• 230° true at 32 knots. (Correct answer)
• 230° true at 25 knots

Correct answer: 230° true at 32 knots.

Winds aloft forecasts (FDs) provide wind direction in degrees true and wind speed in knots. The format '2332' for STL at 9000 feet indicates a wind from 230 degrees true at 32 knots. It's important to remember that these forecasts are in true north, not magnetic.

Question 2: In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?

• Radio operator's permit, and repair and alteration forms.
• Operating limitations and Registration Certificate (Correct answer)
• Aircraft engine and airframe logbooks, and owner's , manual

Correct answer: Operating limitations and Registration Certificate

For an aircraft to be legally flown, specific documents must be aboard in addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate. These include the aircraft's Registration Certificate and its Operating Limitations, which are typically found in the Pilot's Operating Handbook (POH) or Aircraft Flight Manual (AFM). These documents ensure the aircraft is legally registered and operated within its design parameters.

Question 3: With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a category of aircraft?

• Landplane, seaplane
• Normal, utility, acrobatic (Correct answer)
• Airplane, rotorcraft, glider

Correct answer: Normal, utility, acrobatic

Aircraft certification categories like Normal, Utility, and Acrobatic define the structural load limits and intended operational maneuvers an aircraft is designed to withstand. A Normal category aircraft is for non-acrobatic flight, Utility permits limited acrobatic maneuvers, and Acrobatic allows full acrobatic flight. This classification ensures the aircraft's design is appropriate for its intended use and safety standards.

Question 4: The four forces acting on an airplane in flight are

• lift, weight, thrust and drag (Correct answer)
• lift, gravity, power, and friction
• lift, weight, gravity and thrust

Correct answer: lift, weight, thrust and drag

The four fundamental forces acting on an airplane in flight are lift, weight, thrust, and drag. Lift is the upward force opposing weight, thrust is the forward force opposing drag, which is the resistance to motion through the air. These forces constantly interact to determine an aircraft's flight path and performance.

Question 5: While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is

• on the glide slope
• below the glide slope (Correct answer)
• above the glide slope

Correct answer: below the glide slope

A standard 2-bar VASI (Visual Approach Slope Indicator) uses red and white lights to guide pilots to the correct glide slope. When both bars appear red, it indicates that the aircraft is below the intended glide slope. To correct, the pilot must increase altitude to return to the proper glide path, where the near bar would be white and the far bar red.

Question 6: If an aircraft is equipped with a fixed-pitch propeller and a float-type carburetor, the first indication of carburetor ice would most likely be

• loss of RPM (Correct answer)
• increase of RPM
• engine roughness

Correct answer: loss of RPM

Carburetor ice forms in the carburetor venturi, restricting airflow to the engine. With a fixed-pitch propeller, this reduction in engine power directly causes a noticeable decrease in engine RPM. While engine roughness might occur, the initial and most reliable indication of carburetor ice is a drop in RPM as the engine's ability to produce power is diminished.

Question 7: An aircraft departs an airport in the central standard time zone at 0845 CST for a 2-hour flight to an airport located in the mountain standard time zone. The landing should be at what coordinated universal time?

• 1345Z
• 1445Z
• 1645Z (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1645Z

Central Standard Time (CST) is UTC-6. A departure at 0845 CST is equivalent to 1445Z (0845 + 6 hours). Adding the 2-hour flight time to 1445Z results in a landing time of 1645Z. Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) is used in aviation to avoid confusion with time zones.

Question 8: If the piot tube and outside static vents become clogged, which instruments would be affected?

• The altimeter, airspeed indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator
• The altimeter, attitude indicator, and vertical speed indicator
• The altimeter, attitude indicator, and turn-and-slip indicator

The altimeter and vertical speed indicator (VSI) are directly affected by clogged static vents, as they both rely on static air pressure for their operation, causing them to freeze or provide erroneous readings. The airspeed indicator would also be affected by both the clogged pitot tube and static vents. While the attitude indicator is a gyroscopic instrument and not directly connected to the pitot-static system, the altimeter and VSI are critically dependent on these inputs.

Question 9: In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the east if

• a left turn is entered from a north heading (Correct answer)
• an aircraft is decelerated while on a south heading
• an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading

Correct answer: a left turn is entered from a north heading

In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass exhibits 'Northerly Turning Error' (UNOS - Undershoot North, Overshoot South). When turning left from a north heading, the compass card's inertia and the vertical component of the Earth's magnetic field cause it to lag the actual turn. This lag makes the compass initially indicate a turn in the opposite direction, towards the east.

Question 10: The airspace directly overlying Collin Co Rgnl - Mc Kinney ( TKI ) is controlled from the surface to

• 2500 feet MSL
• 2900 feet MSL (Correct answer)
• 700 feet AGL

Correct answer: 2900 feet MSL

To determine the airspace ceiling, one must consult a sectional chart for Collin Co Rgnl - Mc Kinney (TKI). Class D airspace is depicted by a blue dashed line, and its ceiling is indicated by a number in a bracket (e.g., [29]) or a number with a minus sign (e.g., -29), representing hundreds of feet MSL. For TKI, the sectional chart indicates a Class D ceiling of 2900 feet MSL.

Question 11: If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is

• 1829
• 1859
• 1929 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1929

Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 61.57(b)) require a pilot to have made three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise within the preceding 90 days to carry passengers at night. If sunset is 1830, the night currency period begins at 1930. Therefore, passengers cannot be carried after 1929 without meeting these night currency requirements.

Question 12: The intensity and type of icing reported by a pilot is

• light to moderate rime (Correct answer)
• light to moderate
• light to moderate clear

Correct answer: light to moderate rime

Pilot Reports (PIREPs) use specific terminology to describe icing conditions, including both intensity and type. 'Light to moderate' describes the severity of the icing, while 'rime' specifies the type of ice formation. This standardized format provides crucial information to other pilots and air traffic control for flight planning and safety.

Question 13: What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

• The aircraft on the left shall give way
• Each aircraft shall give way to the right
• The faster aircraft shall give way

According to Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 91.113(c)), when two aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude (not head-on), the aircraft to the other's right has the right-of-way. This means the aircraft on the left must alter its course to avoid the aircraft on the right, effectively giving way.

Question 14: An approved chair-type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed bu an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding

• 365 days
• 180 days (Correct answer)
• 120 days

Correct answer: 180 days

Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 91.307(c)) stipulate that an approved chair-type parachute must have been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding 180 days to be carried for emergency use. This regulation ensures the parachute remains in a serviceable and reliable condition for deployment.

Question 15: What effect, if any, does high humidity have on aircraft performance?

• It has no effect on performance
• It decreases performance (Correct answer)
• It increases performance

Correct answer: It decreases performance

High humidity decreases aircraft performance because water vapor is lighter than dry air. This means humid air is less dense than dry air at the same temperature and pressure. Reduced air density diminishes engine power output and propeller efficiency, leading to longer takeoff distances, reduced climb rates, and overall decreased performance.

Question 16: Upon landing, the front passenger (180 pounds) departs the airplane. A rear passenger (204 pounds) moves to the front passenger position. What effect does this have on the CG if the airplane weighed 2690 pounds and the MOM/100 was 2260 just prior to the passenger transfer?

• The CG moves forward approximately 0.1 inch
• The CG moves forward approximately 3 inch (Correct answer)
• The weight changes, but the CG is not affected

Correct answer: The CG moves forward approximately 3 inch

The calculation involves determining the change in total moment and total weight. The departure of the 180-pound front passenger decreases both weight and moment, tending to shift the CG aft. However, the 204-pound rear passenger moving to the front position creates a significant forward shift in moment. When all changes are accounted for, the net effect is a reduction in the aircraft's total moment relative to its new, lighter weight, resulting in the center of gravity moving forward by approximately 3 inches.

Question 17: Generally speaking, the use of carburetor heat tends to

• have no effect on engine performance
• decrease engine performance (Correct answer)
• increase engine performance

Correct answer: decrease engine performance

Carburetor heat operates by directing unfiltered, heated air from around the exhaust manifold into the carburetor. Since heated air is less dense than cooler air, it contains fewer oxygen molecules per volume. This reduction in oxygen leads to a less efficient combustion process, thereby decreasing the engine's power output and overall performance.

Question 18: What minimum altitude is necessary to vertically clear the obstacle on the northeast side of Airpark East Airport by 500 feet?

• 1273 feet MSL (Correct answer)
• 1283 feet MSL
• 1010 feet MSL

Correct answer: 1273 feet MSL

To solve this, locate Airpark East Airport on a sectional chart and identify the highest obstacle on its northeast side. For example, if the obstacle is marked as 773 feet MSL, adding the required 500 feet clearance yields a minimum altitude of 1273 feet MSL (773 + 500). Always refer to the specific sectional chart for accurate obstacle heights.

Question 19: The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicated the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the

• mechanic who performed thee work
• owner or operator (Correct answer)
• pilot in command

Correct answer: owner or operator

While maintenance personnel perform the work and make the necessary entries, Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 91.403 and 91.405) place the ultimate responsibility on the aircraft owner or operator. They are accountable for ensuring the aircraft is airworthy and that all maintenance records are properly completed, indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service.

Question 20: What minimum radio equipment is required to land and take- off Norfolk International?

• Mode C transponder and omni receiver
• Mode C transponder, Omni Receiver, and DME
• Mode C transponder and two-way radio (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Mode C transponder and two-way radio

Norfolk International (KORF) is located within Class C airspace. To operate in Class C airspace, Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 91.130) require an operating two-way radio capable of communicating with Air Traffic Control (ATC) and an operating Mode C transponder. This equipment ensures ATC can identify and provide separation services to aircraft within the controlled airspace.

Question 21: What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?

• The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped (Correct answer)
• The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace
• The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder

Correct answer: The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped

Federal Aviation Regulations (FAR 91.157) impose stricter requirements for Special VFR operations in Class D airspace at night. Due to reduced visibility and lack of visual references, the pilot must be instrument rated, and the aircraft must be fully equipped for instrument flight (IFR equipped). This ensures a higher level of safety during night operations under SVFR conditions.

Question 22: Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?

• At standard temperature (Correct answer)
• At sea level, when the temperature is 0°F
• When the altimeter has no installation error

Correct answer: At standard temperature

Pressure altitude is the altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to a given atmospheric pressure. Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature. Therefore, pressure altitude and density altitude will be the same value only when the ambient temperature is equal to the standard temperature for that altitude.