ATP Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield ATP facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is 'proxy testing'? → Having someone else take a test on behalf of the registered examinee
2. What role does active listening play in Association of Test Publishers practice? → It ensures accurate understanding, demonstrates respect, and improves outcomes
3. Analysis of occupational performance and profession profiles. → Evaluation includes
4. What is the role of a 'checksum' in the secure delivery of digital test content? → Verifying that a file has not been altered or corrupted during transmission
5. A test publisher must retain candidate score records to support a validity study five years later. Which principle governs how long this data may be kept? → Data retention policy aligned with legitimate purpose
6. What is differential item functioning (DIF) analysis primarily used to detect? → Items that perform differently for subgroups with equal ability levels
7. According to ATP standards, what must a technical manual for a credentialing exam include? → Psychometric evidence supporting score interpretation and use
8. What is 'item exposure' in the context of test security? → The rate at which an item is seen by examinees across administrations
9. Which of the following best describes 'abandonment' in the context of assistive technology? → Discontinued use of an AT device after acquisition
10. When conducting a seating and positioning assessment, which professional typically leads the evaluation for a client with complex postural support needs? → Occupational or physical therapist with seating specialty
11. Which seating principle refers to achieving neutral alignment through the pelvis as the foundation for trunk and extremity positioning? → Proximal stability for distal mobility
12. In digital test delivery, what does 'data encryption at rest' protect against? → Unauthorized access to stored item content or candidate data on a server or device
13. When selecting a digital testing vendor, which technical due-diligence activity most directly assesses platform reliability? → Examining historical SLA (Service Level Agreement) performance data and incident reports
14. During item writing, which of the following is considered a best practice for writing answer choices in multiple-choice items? → Ensure all distractors are plausible to examinees who lack mastery
15. Which type of reliability coefficient is most appropriate for evaluating consistency of scores on a single administration of a multiple-choice test? → Internal consistency (e.g., coefficient alpha)
16. Which network security control is most critical for protecting a cloud-based testing platform's administrative portal from unauthorized access? → Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) for all admin accounts
17. In remote proctoring, what does 'live online proctoring' specifically mean? → A human proctor monitors the candidate via webcam in real time
18. A student with autism spectrum disorder has strong literacy skills but limited speech output. Which AAC strategy is most appropriate? → High-tech robust AAC device with text-to-speech and full vocabulary
19. What is the most effective communication approach for ATP professionals? → Adapting communication style to the audience while maintaining accuracy and clarity
20. What is 'item banking'? → A system for storing, cataloging, and managing test items
21. The Joint Committee on Testing Practices (JCTP) produced the Code of Fair Testing Practices to guide: → Test developers and users across educational and psychological testing
22. How should an ATP professional respond to a compliance violation? → Report it promptly, investigate the root cause, and implement corrective actions
23. The Privacy Shield framework between the U.S. and EU was invalidated by which ruling, requiring alternative data transfer mechanisms? → Schrems II (2020)
24. Which equating design uses a set of common items appearing on both old and new forms to link their score scales? → Common-item nonequivalent groups (anchor test) design
25. What is the primary purpose of a stakeholder communication plan in a large-scale test development project? → To ensure the right information reaches the right people at the right time
26. What is 'predictive validity'? → The ability of a test score to predict future performance on a relevant criterion
27. In U.S. federal employment testing, which agency primarily oversees the use of polygraph examinations under the Employee Polygraph Protection Act? → Department of Labor
28. A researcher finds that exam scores predict job performance equally well for male and female applicants. This demonstrates: → Predictive bias absence
29. Which communication principle is most critical when notifying stakeholders about a test security breach? → Providing timely, accurate, and transparent information
30. Which validity evidence source involves examining whether test scores predict relevant future outcomes such as job performance? → Criterion-related (predictive) validity evidence